ATI RN
Oxygen NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with obstructive sleep apnea is using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy. What is the primary benefit of CPAP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary benefit of CPAP therapy is maintaining an open airway during sleep. CPAP delivers a continuous stream of air pressure to keep the airway open, preventing apnea episodes. This ensures proper oxygen flow, reduces snoring, and improves sleep quality. Option A is incorrect because CPAP primarily targets airway obstruction, not respiratory infections. Option C is incorrect as CPAP does not directly affect mucus accumulation. Option D is incorrect as CPAP primarily benefits sleep quality rather than oxygen levels during physical activity.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which symptom is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Night sweats and weight loss. These symptoms are most commonly associated with tuberculosis (TB) due to the chronic infection causing systemic effects leading to night sweats and weight loss. Option B, nosebleeds, is not typically a symptom of TB. Option C, sudden chest pain, is more commonly associated with other conditions like pneumonia or heart-related issues. Option D, bright red blood in sputum, is more indicative of conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer rather than TB.
Question 3 of 5
A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry (SpO2) indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse expect to take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs). In metabolic alkalosis, ABGs help determine the pH status and electrolyte levels. Repeat ABGs are needed to monitor the patient's condition closely. Choice A is not the immediate priority. Choice B is not indicated for metabolic alkalosis. Choice C is unnecessary without knowing the ABG results.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a new tracheostomy. Which finding would require immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because oxygen saturation dropping to 85% indicates hypoxemia, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent tissue damage and ensure adequate oxygenation. Tracheostomy ties being loose (A) can be addressed promptly but do not pose an immediate threat. A small amount of bleeding at the site (B) is common initially and can be managed with pressure. Thick and dry tracheal secretions (C) may require intervention but do not warrant immediate action like severe hypoxemia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because lethargy and difficulty in arousing suggest hypoxia, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. This indicates oxygen saturation is inadequate despite oxygen therapy. A: Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is elevated but not an immediate concern. B: Headache and dizziness can be symptoms of hypoxia but do not require immediate action. C: Oxygen saturation of 91% is slightly low but not critically low to warrant immediate intervention.