Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage compulsive behaviors?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits is a therapeutic intervention for managing OCD. This approach grants the client some autonomy while ensuring that the behaviors do not excessively disrupt daily life. Setting boundaries helps structure the behaviors, decreasing anxiety and distress associated with OCD. Encouraging the client to suppress compulsive behaviors (choice A) may lead to increased anxiety and potential worsening of symptoms. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice C) is beneficial for managing anxiety in general but may not directly address the compulsive behaviors. Discouraging the client from performing compulsive behaviors (choice D) without providing alternative strategies or support may increase distress and resistance.

Question 2 of 5

A client has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoccupation with having a serious illness. Illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, despite medical reassurance. This preoccupation leads individuals to misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of a severe illness, causing distress and impairment in daily functioning. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fear of social situations, dramatic expressions of emotion, and preoccupation with a perceived physical defect are not typical behaviors associated with illness anxiety disorder.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

Question 4 of 5

A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the sedative effects of diazepam, leading to excessive drowsiness or respiratory depression. Choice B is correct as it reflects the need to avoid alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because diazepam is usually taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under medical supervision.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

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