ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.
Question 2 of 9
What should be included in the teaching plan to young adults about the spread of AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because educating young adults about the rise in heterosexual transmission of HIV is crucial to prevent the spread of AIDS. This information helps them understand the importance of safe sex practices and awareness of risks. Choice B is incorrect as HIV transmission in children is not primarily due to sexual abuse. Choice C is also incorrect as herpes zoster is not a form of the HIV virus. Choice D is incorrect as transmission by IV drug users is not prominent with sterile equipment use. Focusing on the rise in heterosexual transmission is key in teaching young adults about AIDS prevention.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals often experience age-related hearing loss, especially in high frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice helps improve the clarity and understanding of communication. Incorrect choices: A: Leaning and shouting can be perceived as aggressive and disrespectful to the elderly client. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking does not enhance communication and might be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.
Question 4 of 9
Cancer is the second major cause of death in this country. What is the first step toward effective cancer control?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because changing habits and customs that predispose the individual to cancer is crucial in preventing cancer. This includes lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, maintaining a healthy diet, exercising regularly, and avoiding excessive sun exposure. By modifying behaviors that increase cancer risk, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing cancer. A: Increasing governmental control of potential carcinogens is not the first step towards effective cancer control as individual behaviors have a more direct impact on cancer risk. C: Conducting more mass screening programs is important but not the first step as prevention through lifestyle changes takes priority. D: Educating the public and professionals about cancer is essential but changing habits is the initial crucial step in effective cancer control.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse finds Mr. Gabatan under the wreckage of the car. He is conscious, breathing satisfactorily, and lying on the back complaining of pain in the back and an inability to move his legs. The nurse should first:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rolling Mr. Gabatan on his abdomen, placing a pad under his head, and covering him with any material available is the appropriate action. This position helps protect his airway and prevents potential complications from a possible spinal injury. It also allows for better assessment of his condition by healthcare professionals. Choice A is incorrect because leaving Mr. Gabatan on his back and instructing him to move can worsen any spinal injury he may have sustained. Choice B is incorrect because raising him to a sitting position can also exacerbate his condition. Choice D is incorrect because moving him without proper stabilization can lead to further injury.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.
Question 8 of 9
During a routine check-up, the nurse evaluates a client with rheumatoid arthritis. To assess for the most obvious disease manifestations first, the nurse checks for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Joint abnormalities. In rheumatoid arthritis, joint abnormalities such as swelling, warmth, and tenderness are the hallmark manifestations. Assessing joint abnormalities first is crucial as they are the primary clinical signs of the disease. Muscle weakness (A) is a common symptom but typically occurs later due to joint inflammation and disuse. Painful subcutaneous nodules (B) are present in some cases but are not as common or prominent as joint abnormalities. Gait disturbances (D) may occur as a result of joint damage, but they are secondary to the primary manifestation of joint abnormalities. By prioritizing the assessment of joint abnormalities, the nurse can promptly identify and address the most prevalent disease manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to his sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is assessed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purplish discoloration of hands and feet. Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia is characterized by pain, swelling, and purplish discoloration of the hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive crisis. Unequal growth of fingers and toes (A), webbing between fingers and toes (C), and deformities of wrists and ankles (D) are not typical findings associated with hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia.