ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 2 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.
Question 3 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.
Question 4 of 5
When administering a standard or median effective dose to a patient, the nurse explains that this amount of drug will have which effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median effective dose (ED50) affects 50% of a population, a statistical pharmacodynamic measure, not individual guarantee. No adverse effects isn't assured-safety varies. Metabolism timing depends on half-life, not ED50. Majority effectiveness exceeds 50%. Half the population defines ED50, explaining its intent.
Question 5 of 5
The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bipolar disorder features mood cycles-depression and mania (hyperactivity)-per DSM-5, distinct from unipolar depression. It's not just cyclic depression, nor ADHD-linked. Seasonal shifts are separate (SAD). Mania-depression cycles define it, clarifying diagnosis.