ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 2 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.
Question 3 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.
Question 4 of 5
When administering a standard or median effective dose to a patient, the nurse explains that this amount of drug will have which effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median effective dose (ED50) affects 50% of a population, a statistical pharmacodynamic measure, not individual guarantee. No adverse effects isn't assured-safety varies. Metabolism timing depends on half-life, not ED50. Majority effectiveness exceeds 50%. Half the population defines ED50, explaining its intent.
Question 5 of 5
The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response by the nurse is option D: "Bipolar disorder means you have cycles of depression as well as hyperactivity, or mania." This response is correct because it provides an accurate and concise explanation of bipolar disorder, highlighting the key characteristic of alternating mood episodes between depression and mania. Option A is incorrect because it oversimplifies bipolar disorder by equating it to just another type of depression, failing to address the manic episodes characteristic of the disorder. Option B is incorrect as it incorrectly associates bipolar disorder with attention deficit disorder, which are distinct mental health conditions. Option C is incorrect as it inaccurately suggests that bipolar disorder is solely related to seasonal mood changes, neglecting the core features of the disorder. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to have a clear understanding of bipolar disorder to effectively communicate with patients and provide appropriate care. By explaining the distinct features of bipolar disorder, nurses can help patients comprehend their diagnosis, manage their symptoms, and access the necessary support and treatment.