ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2016 Practice Exam A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D).
Question 2 of 5
When teaching a client with cancer who has a prescription for methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of a client with cancer prescribed methotrexate, the correct supplement to instruct the client to take is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, meaning it interferes with the body's ability to use folic acid. By supplementing with folic acid, the client can help counteract the drug's effects on folic acid levels in the body, reducing the risk of methotrexate toxicity and adverse effects. Magnesium, Vitamin D, and Iron are not the appropriate supplements for a client taking methotrexate. Magnesium supplementation may interfere with the absorption of methotrexate. Vitamin D and Iron do not directly address the specific mechanism of action of methotrexate in relation to folic acid metabolism. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind supplementing with folic acid in clients taking methotrexate is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication management for clients with cancer. It highlights the importance of considering drug-nutrient interactions and the role of supplements in supporting treatment outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Hot flashes. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with estrogen-based medications like raloxifene. Leg cramps (Option A) are not typically associated with raloxifene use. Urinary frequency (Option C) is not a common adverse effect of raloxifene. Hair loss (Option D) is also not a known side effect of raloxifene. Educationally, it is important for students to understand the common adverse effects of medications to provide safe and effective care to their patients. Understanding the side effects helps nurses in educating clients about what to expect and how to manage them. In the case of raloxifene, monitoring for hot flashes is crucial for patient education and care.
Question 4 of 5
A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Fever. When a client is starting therapy with rituximab, it is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs of fever promptly. Rituximab is a medication that can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Fever can be an early sign of infection, which can be severe due to the immunosuppressive effects of rituximab. Option A) Dizziness is not typically associated with rituximab therapy and may be a common side effect of other medications or unrelated issues. Option C) Urinary frequency is also not a common finding associated with rituximab therapy. Option D) Dry mouth is a less concerning side effect compared to fever in this context. Educationally, understanding the side effects and potential complications of rituximab therapy is essential for nurses to ensure the safety and well-being of their clients. Prompt reporting of fever can lead to early intervention and prevention of serious infections in clients undergoing rituximab treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of a client receiving cyclophosphamide for breast cancer, monitoring for hemorrhagic cystitis is crucial. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug known to cause bladder toxicity, leading to hemorrhagic cystitis. This adverse effect can manifest as hematuria, bladder irritation, and potentially serious complications like bladder fibrosis. Monitoring for signs of hemorrhagic cystitis allows for early intervention to prevent further bladder damage and improve the client's quality of life. Hypertension (Option A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use and is not a primary concern when monitoring clients on this medication. Hyperglycemia (Option B) is also not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case. Ototoxicity (Option C) refers to damage to the ears and is not a known side effect of cyclophosphamide, making it an incorrect choice. In an educational context, understanding the specific side effects of chemotherapy drugs like cyclophosphamide is essential for nurses caring for clients with cancer. By knowing which adverse effects to monitor for, nurses can provide safe and effective care, anticipate potential complications, and intervene promptly to promote positive outcomes for their clients.