A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct response is C) The medication will relieve your mother's constipation. The rationale behind this is that Methylnaltrexone is a peripherally acting mu-opioid receptor antagonist that is specifically used to treat opioid-induced constipation without affecting the central nervous system's analgesic effects of opioids like Morphine. By blocking the mu-opioid receptors in the gut, Methylnaltrexone helps to alleviate the constipation side effect caused by opioids without interfering with the pain relief provided by Morphine. Option A is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not increase respiration, as it is not centrally acting like traditional opioid antagonists such as Naloxone. Option B is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not prevent dependence on Morphine; its primary purpose is to address constipation. Option D is incorrect because while Methylnaltrexone does work in conjunction with Morphine, it does not directly increase pain relief but rather targets constipation. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to understand the rationale for using adjunct medications like Methylnaltrexone in managing side effects of opioid therapy. This knowledge enables healthcare providers to provide comprehensive care while minimizing adverse effects for patients with conditions like end-stage cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin, making them less likely to match the desired peak effect within the specified time frame.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C) Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heartbeat. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors, thus reducing the symptoms of hyperthyroidism like tremors and tachycardia associated with Graves' disease. Option A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland. Option B is incorrect as Propranolol does not affect glucose levels directly. Option D is incorrect because Propranolol does not directly decrease thyroid hormone levels but rather helps in managing the symptoms associated with excess thyroid hormone production. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of medications is crucial for nurses to educate patients effectively about their prescribed treatments. By knowing how Propranolol works in Graves' disease, nurses can empower patients to adhere to their medication regimen and manage their condition effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option B, the 17-year-old with a hypersensitivity to Penicillin. This client is a candidate to receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection due to their hypersensitivity to Penicillin, which could potentially complicate the injection site reaction. Option A, the 1-year-old with no health problems, is not a candidate for the nasal spray influenza vaccine as it is not recommended for children under 2 years of age. Option C, the 25-year-old who is pregnant, should not receive the nasal spray vaccine as it contains a live attenuated virus, which is contraindicated during pregnancy. Option D, the 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement, does not have a specific condition that would make them a candidate for the nasal spray vaccine. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering individual patient factors and contraindications when determining the appropriate route of administration for vaccines. It also underscores the significance of understanding vaccine components and their implications for different patient populations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the interactions between medications and supplements is crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes. In this case, the correct supplement to recommend with methotrexate therapy is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folate antagonist, meaning it interferes with the body's ability to use folic acid, a necessary vitamin for DNA synthesis and cell division. By supplementing with folic acid, the adverse effects of methotrexate can be mitigated without compromising its efficacy in treating cancer. Regarding why the other options are incorrect: - Magnesium: While magnesium is an essential mineral for various bodily functions, it does not directly counteract methotrexate toxicity. - Vitamin D: Vitamin D plays a role in bone health and immune function but does not specifically address the mechanism of methotrexate toxicity. - Iron: Iron is essential for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but does not have a direct impact on methotrexate toxicity. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding drug-supplement interactions and the rationale behind supplement recommendations in pharmacology. It underscores the significance of tailored interventions to optimize drug therapy outcomes and minimize adverse effects. By grasping the specific roles of supplements in mitigating drug toxicity, healthcare providers can deliver more effective and personalized care to patients undergoing complex treatment regimens.