A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct response is C) The medication will relieve your mother's constipation. Methylnaltrexone is a medication used to treat opioid-induced constipation in patients with chronic non-cancer pain and those with advanced illness receiving opioids for pain management, such as in end-stage cancer. Option A is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations. Option B is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not prevent dependence on Morphine; it specifically targets constipation. Option D is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to address constipation caused by opioid use. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind using adjunct medications such as Methylnaltrexone in patients receiving opioids to manage their symptoms effectively and improve their quality of life. By addressing opioid-induced constipation, healthcare providers can help patients continue their pain management regimen while minimizing uncomfortable side effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin, also known as short-acting insulin, typically exhibits a peak effect around 1 to 5 hours following administration. This rapid onset and peak effect make it suitable for managing postprandial glucose levels. In contrast, Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect, NPH insulin has an intermediate duration of action, and Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 30 minutes to 2.5 hours after administration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray (LAIV) even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. Therefore, in this scenario, the 17-year-old with a hypersensitivity to penicillin is a candidate for the nasal spray vaccine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of a client with cancer prescribed methotrexate, the correct supplement to instruct the client to take is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, meaning it interferes with the body's ability to use folic acid. By supplementing with folic acid, the client can help counteract the drug's effects on folic acid levels in the body, reducing the risk of methotrexate toxicity and adverse effects. Magnesium, Vitamin D, and Iron are not the appropriate supplements for a client taking methotrexate. Magnesium supplementation may interfere with the absorption of methotrexate. Vitamin D and Iron do not directly address the specific mechanism of action of methotrexate in relation to folic acid metabolism. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind supplementing with folic acid in clients taking methotrexate is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication management for clients with cancer. It highlights the importance of considering drug-nutrient interactions and the role of supplements in supporting treatment outcomes.