ATI RN
Cardiovascular Conditions Pediatrics Test Bank Questions Free Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with draining skin lesions of the lower extremity is admitted with possible Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B, which involves sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity, is the correct nursing intervention. This action is crucial to identify the causative organism, such as MRSA, and determine the most appropriate antibiotic for treatment. By obtaining cultures, the healthcare team can tailor the antibiotic therapy to target the specific pathogen, improving the chances of successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. Option A, instituting contact precautions, is certainly important in cases of suspected MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. However, it is not the immediate nursing intervention required to address the client's condition. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count, as mentioned in option C, is relevant in assessing for signs of infection, but it is not the priority action when dealing with a client with draining skin lesions potentially caused by MRSA. Option D, administering broad-spectrum antibiotics before obtaining cultures, is not recommended because it can lead to inappropriate treatment and potential antibiotic resistance. Using broad-spectrum antibiotics without knowing the specific pathogen can be detrimental to the client and is not in line with evidence-based practice. For educational context, it is essential for nurses to understand the importance of obtaining cultures and sensitivities before initiating antibiotic therapy, especially in cases like MRSA infections where appropriate antibiotic selection is critical. This approach aligns with the principles of prudent antibiotic use, individualized patient care, and antimicrobial stewardship, all of which are crucial in combating antibiotic resistance.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) arrives at the clinic reporting shortness of breath on exertion and extreme weakness. Vital signs are temperature 100.4°F (38°C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 175/98 mmHg. The client usually receives dialysis three times a week but missed the last treatment. STAT blood specimens are sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which laboratory results should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should report a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L (mmol/L) to the healthcare provider immediately. In patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), especially those who missed dialysis, hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) can occur. High potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The symptoms of shortness of breath, weakness, and the elevated heart rate in this patient may be indicative of cardiac distress due to hyperkalemia. Option A (Potassium 6.5 mEq/L) is the correct answer because it reflects the critical value of hyperkalemia that requires immediate intervention. Option B (Potassium 6 mEq/L) is incorrect because it is still elevated but not as critical as 6.5 mEq/L. Options C (Potassium 0.5 mEq/L) and D (Potassium 1.5 mEq/L) are both extremely low potassium levels, indicating hypokalemia, which is not consistent with the clinical presentation of the patient and is not the immediate concern. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing critical laboratory values, understanding the implications of electrolyte imbalances in patients with CKD, and the need for prompt intervention to prevent serious complications in this population. Nurses must be vigilant in monitoring and managing electrolyte levels in patients with renal impairment to ensure optimal outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is collecting information from a client with chronic pancreatitis who reports persistent gnawing abdominal pain. To help the client manage the pain, which assessment data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of a client with chronic pancreatitis experiencing persistent gnawing abdominal pain, the most important assessment data for the nurse to obtain is eating patterns and dietary intake (Option A). This is crucial because in pancreatitis, the pancreas is inflamed and struggles to produce digestive enzymes, leading to malabsorption of nutrients. Certain foods can exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms, such as fatty or spicy foods. By assessing the client's eating patterns and dietary intake, the nurse can identify potential triggers for the abdominal pain and provide appropriate dietary recommendations to manage the pain and prevent further complications. Option B, level and amount of physical activity, while important in overall health management, is not directly related to managing abdominal pain in chronic pancreatitis. Option C, color and consistency of feces, is more indicative of pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, which may manifest as steatorrhea (fatty stools) but is not directly related to managing abdominal pain. Option D, presence and activity of bowel sounds, is more relevant in assessing gastrointestinal motility but may not directly address the underlying cause of the abdominal pain in chronic pancreatitis. Educationally, understanding the relationship between diet and pancreatitis symptoms is crucial for nurses caring for clients with this condition. By emphasizing the importance of assessing eating patterns and dietary intake, nurses can contribute significantly to symptom management and overall well-being of their clients with chronic pancreatitis.
Question 4 of 5
An adult male client is admitted for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) secondary to AIDS. While hospitalized, he receives IV pentamidine isethionate therapy. In preparing this client for discharge, what important aspect regarding his medication therapy should the nurse explain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that it will be necessary to continue prophylactic doses of IV or aerosol pentamidine every month. This is crucial because pentamidine is used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) in individuals with AIDS. It helps to prevent the recurrence of the opportunistic infection. Option A is incorrect because IV pentamidine is not used to offer protection against other AIDS-related conditions like Kaposi's sarcoma. Option C is incorrect as IV pentamidine is not necessarily given until oral pentamidine can be tolerated, as the mode of administration may differ based on the individual's condition and response to therapy. Option D is incorrect as AZT therapy does not need to be stopped when IV or aerosol pentamidine is being used, as they serve different purposes in managing HIV/AIDS. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind prophylactic treatments like pentamidine in AIDS patients is crucial for nurses to provide comprehensive care. It highlights the importance of medication adherence and patient education in preventing opportunistic infections and improving outcomes for individuals living with HIV/AIDS.
Question 5 of 5
A client with acute renal injury (AKI) who weighs 50 kg and has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/l) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct medication to administer first to a pediatric client with acute renal injury (AKI) and a high potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L is option C, Sodium polystyrene (Kayexalate) 15 grams PO. Sodium polystyrene is a cation-exchange resin that works by binding to potassium in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to its removal from the body through feces. This helps lower the elevated potassium levels quickly, which is crucial in preventing life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia. Option A, Sevelamer, is used to treat high phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease and is not indicated for acute hyperkalemia. Option B, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production and is not the priority in this situation. Option D, Calcium acetate, is used to lower phosphate levels in patients with end-stage renal disease and does not address the immediate issue of hyperkalemia. In an educational context, it is essential to understand the pharmacological management of electrolyte imbalances, especially in pediatric patients with renal dysfunction. Prompt recognition and treatment of hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent serious complications. Nurses need to prioritize interventions based on the urgency of the situation and the potential impact on the patient's health.