A client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 U-100 regular insulin and 25 U of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. At about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. What is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of peripheral vision. Macular degeneration affects the central vision, specifically the macula, which is responsible for central vision and sharp detail. Loss of peripheral vision is not a typical symptom of macular degeneration. The macula is located in the center of the retina, so symptoms would relate to central vision impairments such as decreased ability to distinguish colors, loss of central vision, and loss of near vision. Peripheral vision is not primarily affected by macular degeneration, hence it is not an expected symptom.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals often experience age-related hearing loss, especially in high frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice helps improve the clarity and understanding of communication. Incorrect choices: A: Leaning and shouting can be perceived as aggressive and disrespectful to the elderly client. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking does not enhance communication and might be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. Antibodies are a type of protein produced by the immune system to help identify and neutralize pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Antibodies have a specific structure that allows them to bind to specific antigens. Fat (A), Sugar (C), and Carbohydrates (D) are not primary components of antibodies and do not play a significant role in their structure or function.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform a thorough nursing health history. This method is the best for gathering information about a patient's habits and lifestyle patterns because it involves asking specific questions related to the patient's daily routines, habits, and lifestyle choices. By obtaining a comprehensive health history, the nurse can gather valuable information about the patient's diet, exercise habits, sleep patterns, stress levels, substance use, and other lifestyle factors that may impact their health. Reviewing lab results (A) may provide some information but not specifically about habits and lifestyle. Conducting a physical assessment (B) focuses more on the patient's physical condition rather than lifestyle. Prolonging the termination phase of the interview (D) is not a method of data collection and does not focus on gathering information about habits and lifestyle patterns.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the novice nurse to independently observe the situation with a peer, validate the data, and discuss afterward. This approach promotes reflection, peer learning, and validation of collected data, which are essential for learning and growth. It allows the nurse to self-assess and correct errors through discussion and feedback. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the need for validation and peer feedback. Choice C is incorrect as repeating the same mistake without guidance does not promote learning. Choice D is incorrect as meeting with the nurse manager may not provide the same level of peer learning and validation as observing with a peer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.