ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with diabetes is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin lowers blood glucose by reducing hepatic production and improving insulin sensitivity, best taken with meals to minimize GI upset (e.g., nausea), a common side effect, while aligning with food intake for glycemic control. Reporting muscle pain relates to rare lactic acidosis, not a primary instruction unless symptomatic. Avoiding carbohydrates is incorrect'diabetes management balances carbs, not eliminates them. Bedtime-only dosing ignores twice-daily norms. Taking it with meals enhances tolerance and efficacy, critical for adherence in type 2 diabetes, where metformin is first-line. This instruction reflects its pharmacokinetics and practical use, making A the key teaching point.
Question 2 of 5
In what patient is propranolol (Inderal) contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blocking agents are contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, heart failure, and heart block. The drug would not be contraindicated in the other patients. The nurse should assess the patient’s medical history and contraindications before administering propranolol to ensure safe and effective treatment.
Question 3 of 5
Which drug is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. It works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and temporarily reversing their effects. Naloxone is commonly administered in emergency situations to quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on opioids. Aspirin (choice A) and Advil (choice B) are non-opioid pain relievers and do not reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. Ondansetron (choice D) is an anti-nausea medication and does not counteract the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is taking a cephalosporin. The nurse anticipates which appropriate nursing intervention(s) for this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cephalosporins are antibiotics that can cause nephrotoxicity, particularly in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Monitoring renal function is essential to detect any decline in kidney function early. Liver function studies are also important because cephalosporins can occasionally cause hepatotoxicity. Intravenous cephalosporins should be infused over 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption and minimize adverse effects. Mouth ulcers are not a common side effect of cephalosporins, but monitoring for superinfections, such as oral thrush, is important. Advising the patient to stop the medication when they feel better is incorrect, as it can lead to antibiotic resistance.
Question 5 of 5
The older adult client has gastrointestinal bleeding. The client says to the nurse, 'I don't understand this. All I did was take ibuprofen (Advil) for my arthritis.' Which plan would be best as it relates to the nurse's education of this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding by irritating the stomach lining, a risk higher in older adults. Substituting acetaminophen, which lacks this effect, reduces harm while managing pain, making it the best education plan. Topical drugs may not address systemic arthritis. Physician approval is wise but less specific than substitution. Pros/cons of ibuprofen inform but don't directly mitigate risk. Acetaminophen offers a safer alternative, directly addressing the bleeding issue.