ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about using a portable oxygen system. What instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter. This instruction is crucial as it ensures safe and adequate oxygenation for the client. Option A is incorrect as oxygen should not be stored in a storage room but in a well-ventilated area. Option B is not ideal as oxygen should be left on unless otherwise specified by a healthcare provider. Option D is also important but not directly related to the primary instruction of monitoring oxygen levels.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What recommendation should be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber is recommended for clients with IBS as it promotes regularity and helps reduce symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen symptoms as it is a type of sugar that can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten is not recommended for individuals with IBS, especially those with gluten sensitivity, as it may trigger or worsen symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
Question 5 of 5
The healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a vein, which increases the risk of blood clots. The use of oral contraceptives further elevates the risk of clot formation, making them contraindicated in individuals with thrombophlebitis. Hyperthyroidism (Choice A), diverticulosis (Choice C), and hypocalcemia (Choice D) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.