ATI RN
ATI Rn Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.