ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with bell's palsy tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily as prescribed by the physician. Which laboratory value would indicate a toxicity of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity primarily affects the liver and can result in hepatic injury. When the liver is damaged, it can lead to the elevation of liver enzymes and other markers of liver function. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a measure of kidney function, not liver function. Therefore, an elevated BUN level would not indicate acetaminophen toxicity. In cases of acetaminophen overdose, the liver enzymes, such as alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST), would typically be elevated, indicating liver damage.
Question 2 of 5
A patient undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer asks why she is not receiving trastuzumab like her sister. Which response by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Trastuzumab is a targeted therapy used specifically for HER2-positive breast cancer. If the patient's cancer cells do not overexpress the HER2 receptor, trastuzumab will not be effective. The decision to use targeted therapy is based on the molecular characteristics of the tumor, not the patient's age, insurance coverage, or estrogen receptor status. The nurse should explain that targeted therapies are tailored to the specific biology of the cancer, and trastuzumab is only appropriate for HER2-positive tumors.
Question 3 of 5
Thiopental is used as an anesthetic agent during surgery to repair a small-bowel obstruction in a 78-year-old man. Approximately 1 day after his surgery, toxicology studies still reveal some thiopental present in the bloodstream. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiopental, a barbiturate, persists 24 hours post-surgery. Physiologic metabolism is correct-its lipophilicity causes redistribution to fat, with slow hepatic metabolism, normal in the elderly. Hepatitis or insufficiency lacks evidence. Renal failure doesn't primarily clear it. Trauma (E) is unrelated. This reflects thiopental's pharmacokinetics, not pathology.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking the effects of aldosterone in the distal tubules of the kidney, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. This class of diuretics helps to conserve potassium, making them suitable for patients at risk of hypokalemia. In contrast, furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics, thiazide diuretics, and another loop diuretic, respectively, which all promote the loss of potassium along with sodium and water.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV heparin therapy for treatment of a pulmonary embolus. The patient is being converted to warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. The following questions relate nursing considerations when caring for this patient. Nursing considerations for conversion of IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy will include
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When converting a patient from IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy, overlapping therapy of both medications for at least 5 days is typically recommended. This overlap ensures that the patient's blood remains appropriately anticoagulated during the transition period. The effectiveness of warfarin is delayed and it takes time for the INR to reach the therapeutic range; therefore, it is important to continue the IV heparin until the INR is within the desired range. Monitoring the INR is essential to adjust the dosages of warfarin accordingly and to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate anticoagulation therapy.