A client with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count of 8,000/ul develops epistaxis and melena. Treatment with corticosteroids and immunoglobulins has been unsuccessful, and the physician recommends a splenectomy. The client states, “I don’t need surgery-this will go away on its own”. In considering her response to the client, the nurse must depend on the ethical principle of:

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Question 1 of 9

A client with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count of 8,000/ul develops epistaxis and melena. Treatment with corticosteroids and immunoglobulins has been unsuccessful, and the physician recommends a splenectomy. The client states, “I don’t need surgery-this will go away on its own”. In considering her response to the client, the nurse must depend on the ethical principle of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. In this scenario, the client is expressing her desire to not undergo surgery, which is her right as an autonomous individual. The nurse must respect her decision even if it goes against medical advice. Beneficence (A) is the ethical principle of doing good for the patient, but in this case, respecting the client's autonomy takes precedence. Advocacy (B) involves supporting the client's best interests, which could align with autonomy in this case. Justice (D) refers to fairness and equal treatment, but it is not directly applicable to the client's decision regarding surgery.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff causes memory cells to convert to plasma cells?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-exposure to a specific antigen. Memory cells are formed after initial exposure to an antigen. Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, memory cells quickly recognize and respond, converting into plasma cells to produce antibodies. This process is known as secondary immune response. Incorrect choices: A: An organ transplant - Organ transplant does not involve the conversion of memory cells to plasma cells. C: Release of lymphokines - Lymphokines are signaling molecules secreted by immune cells but do not directly cause memory cells to convert to plasma cells. D: Initial exposure to an antigen - Initial exposure to an antigen leads to the formation of memory cells, not their conversion to plasma cells upon re-exposure.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse explains to a client that she will administer his first insulin dose in his abdomen. How does absorption at the abdominal site compare to absorption at other sites?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Abdominal injection sites have a higher blood supply, leading to faster absorption. 2. Insulin absorption is faster in areas with more blood vessels. 3. Rapid absorption at the abdomen results in quicker onset of action. 4. Other sites may have slower absorption due to less blood flow. Summary: A: Incorrect. Absorption is faster at abdominal sites due to increased blood flow. B: Incorrect. Absorption varies based on injection site blood supply. C: Correct. Abdominal injection sites have rapid insulin absorption. D: Incorrect. Insulin absorption is consistent based on blood flow at injection sites.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the ff. nursing actions is most appropriate when doing perineal care on an uncircumcised male patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, which is to replace the foreskin over the head of the penis after washing. This is important to prevent any irritation or injury to the sensitive foreskin and glans. Leaving the foreskin retracted (A) can lead to discomfort and potential injury. Not retracting the foreskin (B) may not allow for proper cleaning. Using alcohol and a cotton swab (D) can be too harsh and irritating to the delicate tissues. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate and gentle approach to maintain proper hygiene and prevent any complications.

Question 5 of 9

The clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease (bradykinesia rigidity and tremors) is directly related to a decreased level of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Parkinson's disease is characterized by dopamine deficiency in the brain, leading to motor symptoms like bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is crucial for controlling movement. Acetylcholine (A) is not directly related to Parkinson's symptoms. Serotonin (B) is involved in mood regulation, not movement control. Phenylalanine (D) is an amino acid and not directly related to Parkinson's pathology. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following complications can occur if a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A clot can enter the circulation. When a clotted cannula is aggressively flushed, the force can dislodge the clot, allowing it to enter the circulation and potentially leading to serious complications such as embolism. Incorrect choices: B: An air embolism can enter the circulation - In the context of a clotted cannula, air embolism is less likely compared to a clot entering the circulation. C: A painful arterial spasm can occur - Arterial spasm is a potential complication but not directly related to flushing a clotted cannula. D: Fluid extravasation into surrounding tissue can occur - Flushing a clotted cannula may not specifically lead to fluid extravasation, as it is more related to needle dislodgement or improper placement.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the problem-oriented approach involves focusing on the patient's presenting situation to identify the main issues and prioritize data collection. This step helps the nurse understand the immediate concerns and sets the direction for further assessment and interventions. Choice A is incorrect because completing questions in chronological order may not address the most urgent issues. Choice C is incorrect as accurate interpretations come after collecting relevant data. Choice D is incorrect as conducting an observational overview is part of the assessment process but not the first step in the problem-oriented approach.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain patient safety when ambulating a patient for the first time postoperatively?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use two people to assist the patient. This is the safest option as it provides optimal support and stability for the patient during their first postoperative ambulation. Two people can help prevent falls, ensure proper body mechanics, and offer immediate assistance if needed. Using one person (choice A) may not provide enough support. Encouraging the patient to "dangle" (choice C) may increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Giving a narcotic before ambulation (choice D) can impair the patient's balance and coordination, increasing the risk of falls.

Question 9 of 9

An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature. Rationale: 1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. 2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. 3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Summary: Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.

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