Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

Question 2 of 5

Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

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