ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with ascites has a paracentesis, and 1500 ml of fluid is removed. Immediately following the procedure it is most important for the nurse to observe for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A rapid, thready pulse. After paracentesis, rapid removal of ascitic fluid can lead to a decrease in intravascular volume, causing hypovolemia and subsequent compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia (rapid pulse). This is a crucial sign that the nurse should monitor for early detection of hypovolemia. B: Decreased peristalsis is not directly related to paracentesis and is not an immediate concern post-procedure. C: Respiratory congestion is not a common complication of paracentesis and is not the most immediate concern. D: An increased temperature is not a typical response to paracentesis and is not a priority observation post-procedure.
Question 2 of 9
Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Side lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration of secretions and promotes drainage from the mouth during and after a seizure. Placing the patient in a side lying position also helps prevent injury from falling and facilitates monitoring of the patient's airway. Incorrect choices: A: Low fowler's - This position does not provide optimal airway protection and may increase the risk of aspiration during a seizure. B: Modified trendelenburg - This position may worsen the patient's airway patency and does not facilitate drainage of secretions. D: Supine - Placing the patient in a supine position can lead to aspiration and compromise the airway, especially during a seizure. Summary: The side lying position is the most appropriate choice as it ensures airway protection, facilitates drainage, and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after a seizure.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following immunoglobulins is first produced during an acute infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgM. During an acute infection, the body's initial response is rapid and non-specific, leading to the production of IgM antibodies first. IgM is the first immunoglobulin class produced in response to a new antigen, providing immediate protection. IgG is produced later in the immune response and is responsible for long-term immunity. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not typically the first response to infection. IgD is primarily found on the surface of B cells and its function is not well understood in the context of acute infections.
Question 4 of 9
The most common buffer system in the body is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the bicarbonate-carbonic system. This buffer system is crucial in maintaining the body's pH balance. When CO2 combines with water in the blood, it forms carbonic acid, which dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. Bicarbonate acts as a base, accepting excess hydrogen ions to prevent a decrease in pH. Hemoglobin and plasma proteins primarily function as transport molecules, not as buffer systems. Phosphate buffer system is present in intracellular fluids, not as commonly in the body. The bicarbonate-carbonic system is the most prevalent buffer system in the blood and plays a vital role in regulating blood pH.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse should include which of the following in preprocedure teaching for a patient scheduled for carotid angiography?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You may feel a burning sensation when the dye is injected." This is important preprocedure teaching for carotid angiography because it prepares the patient for a common sensation during the procedure, helping to manage their expectations and reduce anxiety. This information is crucial for informed consent. Choice A is incorrect because carotid angiography is usually done under local anesthesia, not general anesthesia. Choice B is incorrect as carotid angiography typically takes about 1-2 hours, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect because all medical procedures, including carotid angiography, carry potential risks and complications, which should be discussed with the patient.
Question 6 of 9
Aling Iska, a 78-year old client consults with a hemoglobin and hematocrit levels of 11mg/dl and 32 % respectively. These finding indicates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should always prioritize communication with the patient, especially when the patient is alert and oriented. Speaking only to the patient's daughter could undermine the patient's autonomy and right to be involved in their care. It is important for the nurse to directly address the patient to gather accurate information and ensure patient-centered care. Making eye contact (A), leaning forward (C), and nodding periodically (D) are all appropriate communication techniques that show attentiveness and engagement with the patient, which are crucial in building rapport and trust.
Question 8 of 9
Which action best demonstrates the nurse’s role in ensuring continuity of care during the evaluation phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Communicating the client’s progress to the interdisciplinary team. During the evaluation phase, the nurse plays a crucial role in ensuring continuity of care by effectively communicating the client’s progress to the interdisciplinary team. This action allows for collaborative decision-making based on the latest information, promotes coordination of care, and ensures that all team members are informed and involved in the client's care plan. Rewriting the care plan (A) is important but may not be the most immediate action during the evaluation phase. Reassessing the client (C) is valuable for gathering additional data but may not directly contribute to continuity of care during this phase. Providing emotional support (D) is essential but may not specifically address continuity of care during evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
For the first 72 hours thyroidectomy surgery, the nurse would assess the client for Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign because they indicate which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocalcemia. Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are both indicators of hypocalcemia, which is a common complication following thyroidectomy surgery due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve and observing facial muscle twitching, while Trousseau's sign involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. Both signs are sensitive indicators of hypocalcemia due to their association with neuromuscular irritability. Hypercalcemia (option C) and hyperkalemia (option D) are not typically associated with thyroidectomy surgery and would not present with these specific signs. Hypokalemia (option B) is not related to Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign.