ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2019 A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with anxiety is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, an anxiolytic, requires 2-4 weeks for effect and is dosed thrice daily , showing understanding. Immediate relief is false'it's not a benzo. Alcohol worsens anxiety. It's non-sedating . Thrice-daily dosing aligns with buspirone's steady-state need, key in anxiety where consistency matters, making B the correct statement.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing instructions to a client who is taking doxapram (Dopram). Which of the following statements made by the client needs further instructions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct time to take doxapram (Dopram) is not at bedtime. Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant medication that is usually taken during waking hours to help improve breathing. Taking it at bedtime may interfere with regular sleep patterns and could potentially cause side effects like restlessness or insomnia. It is important for the client to take the medication as directed by their healthcare provider, typically before meals or as prescribed, and not at bedtime.
Question 3 of 5
Superficial bladder cancer can be treated by direct instillation of the antineoplastic antibiotic agent mitomycin (Mutamycin). This process is termed:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intravesical administration involves the direct instillation of medication into the bladder, which is a common method for treating superficial bladder cancer. This approach allows high concentrations of the drug, such as mitomycin, to come into direct contact with the cancerous cells lining the bladder, minimizing systemic side effects. Intraventricular and intrathecal administrations are used for delivering drugs to the brain and spinal cord, respectively, while intravascular administration refers to intravenous delivery. Intravesical administration is specifically designed for bladder conditions, making it the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following pharmacologic classifications does the drug propranolol fall under?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones, specifically by blocking beta receptors. Propranolol, in particular, is a non-selective beta blocker that is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. It is also used off-label for anxiety and migraine prevention.
Question 5 of 5
The client has MRSA and receives vancomycin (Vancocin) intravenously (IV). The nurse assesses an upper body rash and decreased urine output. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vancomycin, a glycopeptide antibiotic, is critical for treating MRSA but carries risks of hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., rashes) and nephrotoxicity (e.g., reduced urine output). The nurse's priority when observing an upper body rash and decreased urine output is to hold the next dose and notify the physician . This action prevents further drug administration that could worsen a potential allergic reaction or kidney damage, both serious adverse effects requiring immediate medical evaluation. An X-ray might assess lung involvement in severe cases but isn't the first step for these symptoms. An antihistamine could treat mild itching but risks masking a systemic reaction, delaying critical care. A urine specimen might confirm renal issues but doesn't address the urgency of stopping the drug. Holding the dose ensures patient safety while awaiting physician guidance, aligning with nursing protocols for adverse drug reactions, making A the most prudent and timely action.