ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Anemia results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia. 2. Dyspnea (shortness of breath) occurs due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake. 3. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) compensates for decreased oxygen delivery. 4. Pallor (pale skin) is a classic sign of decreased red blood cells in iron-deficiency anemia. Summary: A: Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea are not typical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia. B: Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are non-specific symptoms and not specific to iron-deficiency anemia. D: Itching, rash, and jaundice are not commonly associated with iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. During the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to establish a comprehensive database of the patient's health status. This information serves as the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities (C) in the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes achieved (D) in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database is crucial in the initial assessment phase to gather accurate information for the subsequent steps in the nursing process.
Question 3 of 9
A client is receiving a blood transfusion. If this client experiences an acute hemolytic reaction, which nursing intervention is the most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immediately stop the transfusion, infuse normal saline solution, notify the blood bank. Rationale: 1. Stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications from the hemolytic reaction. 2. Infuse normal saline solution to maintain adequate hydration and support kidney function. 3. Notify the blood bank to report the adverse reaction and to return the blood products for further investigation and testing. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect because infusing dextrose 5% in water (D5W) is not indicated for treating a hemolytic reaction. Calling the physician is important, but stopping the transfusion and notifying the blood bank are more critical. B: Incorrect because slowing the transfusion may not be sufficient to manage the acute hemolytic reaction effectively. C: Incorrect because administering antihistamines is not the appropriate treatment for a hemolytic reaction. Stopping the transfusion and notifying the blood bank are more urgent actions.
Question 4 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing for signs of brain injury is crucial in assessing a possible skull fracture. Signs may include altered mental status, headache, nausea, vomiting, and unequal pupil size. Choice B is incorrect as hemorrhaging from the oral cavity may not always be present in skull fractures. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not recommended for a possible skull fracture. Choice D is incorrect as decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Proper positioning helps maintain alignment and prevent deformities in muscles and joints. Step 2: It reduces the risk of contractures by ensuring that Mr. Gabatan's lower extremities are in optimal positions. Step 3: This promotes circulation and reduces pressure on bony prominences. Step 4: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity, tilt board may not address positioning adequately, and deep massage may not prevent contractures effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A client has cancer that has me tastasized to her bones. She is complaining of increased thirst, polyuria and decreased muscle tone. Her lab values are: Na 139mEq/L, k 4 mEq/L, Cl 103 mEq/L, and Ca 8 mg/dl. What electrolyte imbalance is present?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. Increased thirst and polyuria are symptoms of hypercalcemia, as excess calcium can lead to dehydration and increased urine output. Decreased muscle tone is also a common symptom of hypercalcemia. The lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl confirms high levels of calcium in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Hypocalcemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl indicates normal to high levels of calcium, ruling out hypocalcemia. B: Hyperkalemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of K 4 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hyperkalemia. D: Hypochloremia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Cl 103 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hypochloremia.
Question 7 of 9
The activation of B cells in humoral immunity is assisted by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells by releasing cytokines that stimulate B cell proliferation and differentiation. They also help in the production of antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells (A) are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not humoral immunity. Suppressor T cells (B) regulate the immune response and do not directly assist in B cell activation. Neutrophils (D) are phagocytic cells involved in innate immunity, not in activating B cells in humoral immunity.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? In the PQRST mnemonic, "P" stands for provocation, "Q" for quality, "R" for region/radiation, "S" for severity, and "T" for timing. The question "Where is the pain located?" corresponds to the "R" component, which is region/radiation. This question helps the nurse identify the specific area where the pain is localized, which can provide valuable information for diagnosis. Explanation of other choices: B: What causes the pain? This question relates more to the "P" component, which is provocation, rather than the region/radiation aspect. C: Does it come and go? This question pertains to the "T" component, which is timing, focusing on the pattern of the pain rather than the specific location. D: What does the pain feel like? This question is more aligned with the "Q" component, which is quality,
Question 9 of 9
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.