ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Anemia results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia. 2. Dyspnea (shortness of breath) occurs due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake. 3. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) compensates for decreased oxygen delivery. 4. Pallor (pale skin) is a classic sign of decreased red blood cells in iron-deficiency anemia. Summary: A: Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea are not typical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia. B: Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are non-specific symptoms and not specific to iron-deficiency anemia. D: Itching, rash, and jaundice are not commonly associated with iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is developing nursing diagnoses for a group of patients. Which nursing diagnoses will the nurse use? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety related to barium enema. This is the correct choice because nursing diagnoses should focus on the patient's actual or potential health problems, not just medical conditions. Anxiety is a common response to medical procedures like a barium enema. It is essential for the nurse to address the patient's emotional and psychological needs. Summary: B: Impaired gas exchange related to asthma is a medical diagnosis, not a nursing diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses focus on the patient's response to the medical condition. C: Impaired physical mobility related to incisional pain is a potential nursing diagnosis, but the focus should be on the patient's response to the pain, not just the pain itself. D: Nausea related to adverse effect of cancer medication is also a medical diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses should address the patient's response to the medication side effects, not just the side effects themselves.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff conditions is evident by persistent hoarseness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.
Question 4 of 9
A patient was recently diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse and the patient have established a goal that the patient will not experience shortness of breath with activity in 3 days with an expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. Which evaluative measure will the nurse use to demonstrate progress toward this goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct evaluative measure is D: Lungs clear to auscultation following use of inhaler. This choice aligns with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. By using an inhaler to clear the lungs, the nurse can assess if the expected outcome is being met. This measure directly evaluates the presence of secretions in the lungs, in line with the established goal. Incorrect Choices: A: No sputum or cough present in 4 days - This measure does not align with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. B: Congestion throughout all lung fields in 2 days - This indicates a worsening condition and does not demonstrate progress towards the goal. C: Shallow, fast respirations 30 breaths per minute in 1 day - This measure is unrelated to the presence of secretions in the lungs and the goal of avoiding shortness of breath with activity.
Question 5 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis. Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal saline solution. Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions, so options A and D are incorrect. Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which can interact with phenytoin, leading to precipitation. Therefore, option B is also incorrect. Normal saline is the most compatible diluent for phenytoin, maintaining the drug's stability and effectiveness. It is essential to use the appropriate diluent to prevent adverse reactions or drug interactions.
Question 7 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 8 of 9
A client is being returned to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client’s bedside?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Tracheostomy set Rationale: 1. Immediate airway management: After thyroidectomy, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling or bleeding. Tracheostomy set ensures immediate access to secure the airway. 2. Emergency intervention: In case of respiratory distress or airway obstruction post-surgery, a tracheostomy set allows for prompt and effective intervention. 3. Patient safety and priority: Ensuring airway patency is crucial for the client's survival and takes precedence over other equipment. Summary of other choices: A: Indwelling urinary catheter kit - Not directly related to post-thyroidectomy care. B: Cardiac monitor - Important but secondary to airway management in this situation. D: Humidifier - Not essential for immediate post-thyroidectomy care.
Question 9 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing for signs of brain injury is crucial in assessing a possible skull fracture. Signs may include altered mental status, headache, nausea, vomiting, and unequal pupil size. Choice B is incorrect as hemorrhaging from the oral cavity may not always be present in skull fractures. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not recommended for a possible skull fracture. Choice D is incorrect as decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.