ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client with Alzheimer’s disease: 'Disturbed Thought Processes related to Alzheimer’s disease as evidenced by incoherent language.' Which part of this diagnosis is considered the problem statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed thought processes. This is the problem statement because it identifies the specific nursing diagnosis that reflects the client's cognitive impairment. "Disturbed thought processes" directly addresses the issue the nurse is observing in the client. The other choices are not the problem statement. "Related to" is the etiology or cause of the problem, "Alzheimer’s disease" is the medical condition, and "Incoherent language" is the defining characteristic or evidence of the problem. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it clearly states the client's primary issue.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Santos a 59-year old businessman was diagnosed with angina pectoris. The nurse understands that the cause of angina pectoris is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: inadequate supply of oxygen to the myocardium. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood supply to the myocardium leads to ischemia, resulting in the characteristic chest pain. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to a decrease in alveolar surface area for gas exchange, which is related to conditions like emphysema, not angina. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to pulmonary circulation, not coronary circulation. Choice D is incorrect as an increase in alveolar surface area would not be a cause of angina pectoris.
Question 4 of 9
A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.
Question 5 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take to assess the severity of the latex allergy and determine appropriate interventions. By gathering more information about the reaction, the nurse can better understand the potential risks and provide safe care. Summary of other choices: A: Immediately placing the patient in isolation is unnecessary and not indicated based solely on the patient's latex allergy. C: Proceeding to the termination phase of the interview is premature without fully assessing the patient's allergy. D: Documenting the allergy is important but should not be the first action without assessing the reaction itself.
Question 6 of 9
Management of hypercalcemia includes all of the following actions except administration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because administration of the diuretic furosemide without saline is not recommended for managing hypercalcemia. Furosemide can lead to volume depletion and potentially exacerbate hypercalcemia by concentrating calcium levels in the blood. A: Fluid administration helps dilute calcium levels by increasing urine output. C: Inorganic phosphate salts can bind with calcium in the gut, reducing absorption. D: Intravenous phosphate therapy can help lower calcium levels by promoting calcium-phosphate complex formation. In summary, B is incorrect as it may worsen hypercalcemia, while A, C, and D are valid strategies for managing hypercalcemia.
Question 7 of 9
If a client’s parathyroid glands were accidentally removed during a procedure, which condition should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the body. Without them, calcium levels will drop, leading to hypocalcemia. A: Hypomagnesemia is incorrect because magnesium levels are not directly regulated by the parathyroid glands. B: Hyperkalemia and C: Hypernatremia are incorrect as they are not typically associated with parathyroid gland removal. In summary, the removal of parathyroid glands would result in hypocalcemia due to the disruption of calcium regulation in the body.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions will help prevent a further increase in ICP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is the correct answer because it helps to promote venous drainage, reduce cerebral edema, and decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). By positioning the patient with the head elevated, gravity assists in preventing further increases in ICP. Encouraging fluids may lead to fluid overload and exacerbate cerebral edema. Providing physical therapy and frequent repositioning may increase ICP by causing unnecessary movement and potential strain on the patient's head and neck.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial conjunctivitis. In providing patient teaching the nurse would tell the patient that this condition is more commonly known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pinkeye. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly referred to as "pinkeye" due to the characteristic pink or red appearance of the eye. This condition is caused by a bacterial infection of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and inner eyelids. The term "glaucoma" (A) refers to a different eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, while "color blindness" (B) is a genetic condition affecting color vision. "Astigmatism" (C) is a refractive error related to the shape of the cornea or lens, not an infection of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately identifies the common name for acute bacterial conjunctivitis.