Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.

Question 2 of 5

When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

Question 4 of 5

A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

Question 5 of 5

A client is being instructed on the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates an understanding of the proper technique for using an incentive spirometer. Incentive spirometry helps to improve lung function by encouraging deep breathing and sustaining the inhalation to fully expand the lungs. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct instructions for using an incentive spirometer.

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