A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

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Question 1 of 9

A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.

Question 2 of 9

When educating a client who experienced a pneumothorax, which of the following statements should the nurse use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: After experiencing a pneumothorax, it is crucial for the client to be educated on potential complications. A productive cough can indicate infection or another issue, requiring prompt medical attention. Weakness, returning to work, and wearing a mask in crowded areas are important considerations but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory symptoms post-pneumothorax.

Question 3 of 9

A client has a new prescription for heparin therapy. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate an immediate concern for the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement 'I take antacids several times a day.' Antacids can alter the absorption of heparin, potentially affecting its effectiveness and increasing the risk of clot formation. This is a significant concern as it can impact the therapeutic outcome of heparin therapy. The other statements are not directly related to potential complications or interactions with heparin therapy.

Question 4 of 9

A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

Question 6 of 9

A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.

Question 7 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

Question 8 of 9

A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

Question 9 of 9

A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.

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