ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
. A client with a suspected left sided heart failure is scheduled to undergo a multigated acquisition scan. Which of the following actions is required before undergoing the test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - A: Diuretics are not necessary before the test and may affect test results. - B: Dehydration is not recommended before the test as it can impact cardiac function. - C: Medication to relieve cough is necessary to reduce any potential interference with the scan. - D: Administering analgesics is not required for the test and may not be relevant to the client's condition.
Question 2 of 9
In teaching a female client who is HIV positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because starting birth control pills does not protect against HIV transmission to the baby during pregnancy. The other choices demonstrate understanding of HIV transmission risks and prevention methods. A shows awareness of vertical transmission, C recognizes that not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers are infected, and D acknowledges the potential need for a C-section to reduce transmission risk. Starting birth control pills is unrelated to preventing mother-to-child HIV transmission during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.
Question 4 of 9
Bacterial meningitis alters intracranial physiology, causing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bacterial meningitis alters intracranial physiology by causing cerebral edema, raised intracranial pressure, and increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Cerebral edema is the accumulation of fluid in the brain tissue, leading to increased pressure. Raised intracranial pressure occurs due to the inflammation and swelling caused by the infection. Increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier allows substances to pass through that would normally be blocked, contributing to the inflammatory response. Therefore, all of these changes are interconnected and commonly observed in bacterial meningitis cases. Choices A, B, and C individually describe specific alterations seen in bacterial meningitis but do not encompass the full spectrum of changes that occur, making them incorrect options.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial conjunctivitis. In providing patient teaching the nurse would tell the patient that this condition is more commonly known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pinkeye. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly referred to as "pinkeye" due to the characteristic pink or red appearance of the eye. This condition is caused by a bacterial infection of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and inner eyelids. The term "glaucoma" (A) refers to a different eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, while "color blindness" (B) is a genetic condition affecting color vision. "Astigmatism" (C) is a refractive error related to the shape of the cornea or lens, not an infection of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately identifies the common name for acute bacterial conjunctivitis.
Question 6 of 9
A client has squamous cell cancer of the right lung that has metastasized to the brain. In addition to chemotherapy for lung cancer, the physician prescribes lomustine (CeeNU), 100 mg/m2 as a single dose, to treat the brain metastasis. What are the major administration and excretion routes of lomustine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: I.V. administration and urinary excretion. Lomustine is typically administered intravenously, allowing for rapid systemic distribution. The drug is metabolized in the liver and excreted primarily through the kidneys, thus the urinary route. This choice is correct as lomustine's pharmacokinetics align with this pattern. A: Oral administration and urinary - While some drugs are administered orally, lomustine is not typically given orally due to poor bioavailability. C: I.V. administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect. D: Oral administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client with Alzheimer’s disease: 'Disturbed Thought Processes related to Alzheimer’s disease as evidenced by incoherent language.' Which part of this diagnosis is considered the problem statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed thought processes. This is the problem statement because it identifies the specific nursing diagnosis that reflects the client's cognitive impairment. "Disturbed thought processes" directly addresses the issue the nurse is observing in the client. The other choices are not the problem statement. "Related to" is the etiology or cause of the problem, "Alzheimer’s disease" is the medical condition, and "Incoherent language" is the defining characteristic or evidence of the problem. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it clearly states the client's primary issue.
Question 9 of 9
A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my life.” This statement is correct because pernicious anemia is a lifelong condition requiring ongoing vitamin B12 supplementation. Patients with pernicious anemia lack intrinsic factor, which is needed to absorb vitamin B12 from food. Therefore, they need lifelong B12 therapy to prevent complications such as anemia and neurological damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest a limited duration of therapy. Pernicious anemia is a chronic condition that necessitates continuous treatment. Choice A implies therapy until signs and symptoms disappear, which may not address the underlying cause of the deficiency. Choice B mentions therapy until vitamin B12 levels normalize, which may not prevent recurrence. Choice C suggests monthly therapy for a fixed period, which may not be sufficient for lifelong management.