ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.
Question 2 of 9
Which nursing actions will the nurse perform in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse sets priorities for patient care to determine the effectiveness of nursing interventions. This involves comparing achieved outcomes with established goals. Choices B and D are related to evaluation as they involve determining whether outcomes or standards are met and documenting results of goal achievement, respectively. However, choice C, ambulating the patient, is an intervention that would typically occur in the implementation phase, not the evaluation phase. Therefore, the correct answer is A because setting priorities for patient care is a key component of the evaluation phase.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff factors predisposes a client to the development of TB?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malnutrition. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to contracting tuberculosis. A well-nourished individual has a stronger immune response to fight off TB bacteria. Exposure to toxic gases (A), congenital abnormalities (B), and obstruction by tumor (C) do not directly predispose a client to TB. Malnutrition is the key factor as it impairs the immune system's ability to combat the TB bacteria effectively.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.
Question 5 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a tentative diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism. The nurse should monitor the client closely for the related problem of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Profound neuromuscular irritability. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a decrease in parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. This can result in neuromuscular irritability such as muscle cramps, spasms, and tingling. Monitoring for neuromuscular symptoms is crucial as they can progress to severe complications like seizures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically present with severe hypotension, excessive thirst, or acute gastritis. Monitoring for signs of hypocalcemia and neuromuscular irritability is essential in managing hypoparathyroidism.
Question 6 of 9
A client’s blood glucose levels remain elevated despite adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. What is the nurse’s best action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because reassessing the client's diet, medication, and lifestyle habits allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. By identifying possible issues, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to better manage the client's condition. Increasing medication dosage without understanding the root cause may lead to adverse effects. Simply documenting the elevated levels without taking proactive measures does not address the problem. Notifying the client's family is not the nurse's first action; the focus should be on assessing and addressing the client's needs.
Question 7 of 9
A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows: 1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief. 2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours. 3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order. - Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision. - Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff. nursing interventions will help prevent complications in the patient with Bell’s Palsy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Lubricating eye drops Rationale: Lubricating eye drops help prevent complications such as corneal abrasions in patients with Bell's Palsy by keeping the eye moist and preventing dryness. Bell's Palsy can cause difficulty in closing the eye properly, leading to dryness and potential damage to the cornea. Using lubricating eye drops helps maintain eye health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Megavitamin therapy - Not directly related to preventing complications in Bell's Palsy. B: Application of ice to the affected area - Ice may not address eye dryness or prevent corneal abrasions. C: Elastic bandages - Not relevant to preventing complications associated with Bell's Palsy.