ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.
Question 2 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and progressive systemic sclerosis can lead to impaired circulation and skin breakdown. Clients with these conditions are at risk for pressure ulcers due to decreased blood flow and compromised skin integrity. The other options, B: Imbalanced nutrition, C: Constipation, and D: Ineffective thermoregulation, do not directly relate to the client's conditions or the potential complications associated with them. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be A: Risk for impaired skin integrity.
Question 3 of 9
What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for James, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct size of suction catheter for James would be Fr. 5. The selection of suction catheter size is based on the patient's height and weight, as well as the secretions to be cleared. A Fr. 5 catheter is appropriate for an average adult like James, as it balances between being too small or too large. Fr. 12 and Fr. 18 are too large for his size and could cause trauma, while Fr. 10 is slightly larger than needed, increasing the risk of mucosal damage. Therefore, Fr. 5 is the most suitable choice for James.
Question 4 of 9
A client with stage II ovarian cancer undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo- oopherectomy with tumor secretion, omentectomy, appendectomy, and lymphadenopathy. During the second postoperative day, which of the following assessment findings would raise concern in the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Shallow breathing and increasing lethargy. This could indicate a potential complication such as respiratory distress or postoperative infection. Shallow breathing may suggest respiratory compromise, while increasing lethargy could be a sign of systemic infection or inadequate oxygenation. A: Abdominal pain is common postoperatively and can be managed with pain medication. B: Serous drainage from the incision is normal and expected in the early postoperative period. C: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the bowel; it typically resolves as the patient recovers. In summary, the other options are common postoperative findings, while shallow breathing and increasing lethargy are concerning signs that require immediate attention.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because successful treatment of diabetes insipidus aims to reduce excessive urine output and dehydration. A fluid intake of less than 2,500mL in 24 hours indicates proper control of fluid balance. Choice B is incorrect because urine output of more than 200mL/hour suggests ongoing excessive fluid loss, which is not indicative of successful treatment. Choice C is incorrect as a blood pressure of 90/50mmHg is low and may indicate hypotension, which is not a specific indicator of successful diabetes insipidus treatment. Choice D is incorrect because a pulse rate of 126 beats/min is not a direct marker of diabetes insipidus treatment success. In summary, the correct indicator of successful treatment of diabetes insipidus is a reduction in fluid intake, option A, as it signifies improved fluid balance and hydration status.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts. Respirations (C) of 16 per minute is objective data as it is a quantifiable measurement that can be counted and recorded. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or bias. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings, perceptions, or symptoms, which can vary and are open to interpretation. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents concrete, verifiable information that can be used in the patient's assessment and care planning.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention to ensure that the client is free from injury caused by falls?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because monitoring for swelling and heaviness of legs is essential in preventing falls, which can be caused by conditions like edema or circulatory issues. Swollen or heavy legs can affect mobility and balance, increasing the risk of falls. This intervention helps identify potential issues early and implement preventive measures. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring for chest pain and LDL levels pertains more to cardiovascular health than fall prevention. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring postural changes in BP is important for managing hypertension, not necessarily for preventing falls. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring temperature for mild fever is more related to identifying infections rather than preventing falls.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Kara is giving instructions to an elderly client on diabetic foot care. Which teaching is not part of foot care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Washing feet in hot water is not part of diabetic foot care as it can lead to burns or skin damage. A: Properly fitting shoes help prevent injuries. B: Trimming toenails straight reduces risk of ingrown nails. D: Wearing shoes on hot surfaces protects feet from burns or injuries. Overall, C is incorrect due to its potential harm to the client's feet.
Question 9 of 9
Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Chorea is a hallmark feature of Huntington's disease, caused by damage to the basal ganglia. Intellectual decline includes cognitive impairments such as memory loss and executive dysfunction. Emotional disturbances involve mood swings, irritability, and apathy. Therefore, all three manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Huntington's disease, making D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key clinical features of Huntington's disease.