ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures. In chronic hyperparathyroidism, there is excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased bone resorption and calcium release from bones, causing bone demineralization and weakening. This puts the client at risk for pathologic fractures. Choice B is incorrect because exhaustion is not a direct consequence of chronic hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as edema and dry skin are not typical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because tetany is more commonly associated with hypocalcemia, which is not a typical finding in hyperparathyroidism.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with type I diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice. In this scenario, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can lead to confusion and abnormal behavior. Administering fast-acting carbohydrates like orange juice will help quickly raise the blood sugar levels. This is the first-line treatment for conscious patients with hypoglycemia. Choice A (I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon) is used for unconscious patients or when oral intake is not possible. Choice B (I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%) is too aggressive for a conscious patient and may lead to complications. Choice D (10 U of fast-acting insulin) would further lower the blood sugar levels and worsen the situation. Administering fast-acting carbohydrates is the safest and most effective approach for conscious patients with hypoglycemia to quickly raise their blood sugar levels and resolve their symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
The following statements are on a patient’s nursing care plan. Which statement will the nurse use as an outcome for a goal of care? The patient will verbalize a decreased pain level less than 3 on a 0 to 10 scale by the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) - the patient verbalizing a decreased pain level less than 3 on a 0 to 10 scale by the end of this shift. This outcome is immediate, concrete, and directly related to the goal of managing pain. Choice B is incorrect as it lacks specificity and a clear timeframe for evaluation. Choice C is incorrect because the outcome is vague and does not specify when the patient needs to understand the dietary changes. Choice D is incorrect because the timeframe is provided but the outcome is not specific enough and does not directly relate to the goal of pain management.
Question 4 of 9
An adult has and IV line in the right forearm infusing D5 ½ NS with 20 mEq of potassium at 75 ml/h. which statement would be a correct report from the RN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Potassium is typically administered on a secondary line to prevent rapid infusion and potential adverse effects. 2. The primary line carries the D5 ½ NS solution without potassium, while the secondary line delivers the potassium. 3. Reporting that "potassium is on the secondary line" accurately describes the setup for this IV infusion. Summary: A: Incorrect - Incorrectly states that the potassium bag is piggybacked into the dextrose. B: Incorrect - Closing the clamp below the D5 ½ NS bag is unnecessary and does not address the potassium infusion. D: Incorrect - Fails to address the specific issue of the potassium infusion being on a secondary line.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing an IM injection of prednisolone acetate, 30 mg. It is supplied as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse prepare?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed for the injection, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication. In this case, 30 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 0.6 mL. However, since the nurse should round up to ensure the full dose is administered, the correct answer is 0.7 mL. Choice A is incorrect as it is rounded down. Choice C is incorrect as it is the exact division without rounding up. Choice D is incorrect as it is rounded up too much.
Question 6 of 9
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing a physical examination. This method allows the nurse to directly gather patient data through observation, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. It helps in assessing the patient's overall health status, identifying any abnormalities, and establishing a baseline for further care. Reviewing literature (A) helps in evidence-based practice but does not directly collect patient data. Checking orders for tests (B) and ordering medications (D) involve actions based on data collected rather than collecting the data itself.
Question 7 of 9
If a Wall unit is used, What should be the suctioning pressure required by James?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The optimal suctioning pressure for adults is usually between 80-120 mmHg. Step 2: Choice C falls within this recommended range (95-110 mmHg). Step 3: Higher pressures (like in choices B and D) can cause tissue damage. Step 4: Lower pressures (like in choice A) may not effectively remove secretions. Summary: Choice C (95-110 mmHg) is correct as it falls within the safe and effective suctioning pressure range for adults, while the other choices are either too high or too low, risking harm or inefficiency.
Question 8 of 9
Other signs of hypovolemia includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreased pulse rate and widened pulse pressure are not signs of hypovolemia. In hypovolemia, the body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate and narrowing the pulse pressure to maintain adequate blood flow. A is incorrect as dry mucous membranes and soft eyeballs are signs of dehydration. B is incorrect as increased hematocrit and hemoglobin are indicators of hemoconcentration in hypovolemia. D is incorrect as increased lethargy and confusion can be seen in severe hypovolemia due to poor perfusion of vital organs.
Question 9 of 9
Clients who will go through operations and who have undergone surgery need the proper observation, treatment and care. Implementing the nursing process to these patients will help reduce complications. Nurse Maria checks on Mr. Alberto who had abdominal surgery, and finds that the edges of the incision have separated. Also, a small portion of the bowel is sticking out through the incision. Nurse Maria would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Cover wound with moist sterile dressing Rationale: 1. Covering the wound with a moist sterile dressing helps maintain a clean and moist environment, promoting wound healing. 2. Moist dressing prevents the wound from drying out and minimizes the risk of infection. 3. The moist environment supports healing by promoting cell growth and preventing tissue damage. 4. It protects the exposed bowel from further injury and contamination. Summary: B: Finding out how this happened is important but not an immediate priority for patient care. C: Placing sterile dry gauze can lead to the wound drying out and hinder healing. D: Pouring sterile water into the wound is not recommended as it can introduce contaminants and is not considered standard care for this situation.