ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.
Question 2 of 5
During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr© syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr© syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.
Question 5 of 5
When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autoimmunity is the correct term for a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own tissues. Alloimmunity (Choice A) refers to an immune response against foreign tissue. Opsonization (Choice B) is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (Choice D) involves an exaggerated immune response against antigens.
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