A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of a client with Preeclampsia receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion, the nurse should report a urinary output of 24 mL/hr to the provider. This finding suggests oliguria, which can indicate impaired renal function or magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys, so a low urinary output could indicate decreased clearance of the medication, leading to potential toxicity. Option A (2+ deep tendon reflexes) is a normal finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate due to its neuromuscular effects. Option B (2+ pedal edema) is a common symptom in preeclampsia but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate infusion. Option D (respirations 12/min) is within the normal range and not typically a concern with magnesium sulfate infusion unless respiratory depression is present. Educationally, understanding the importance of monitoring urinary output in clients receiving magnesium sulfate is crucial for safe and effective nursing care. It highlights the need for close assessment and communication with the healthcare provider to prevent complications associated with magnesium sulfate therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the case of a client newly diagnosed with Fibromyalgia, the nurse should anticipate the prescription of Duloxetine (Option D). Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that is commonly used to manage the symptoms of fibromyalgia, such as pain, fatigue, and mood disturbances. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help alleviate the widespread pain associated with fibromyalgia. Option A, Colchicine, is primarily used to treat gout by reducing inflammation. It is not a typical medication prescribed for fibromyalgia. Option B, Hydroxychloroquine, is commonly used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. While it may help with some symptoms of fibromyalgia, it is not a first-line treatment for this condition. Option C, Auranofin, is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. It is not typically indicated for fibromyalgia. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind medication choices for fibromyalgia is crucial for nurses caring for patients with this condition. Knowing the mechanisms of action and indications for each medication can help nurses provide safe and effective care, improve patient outcomes, and collaborate with healthcare providers to optimize treatment plans for individuals with fibromyalgia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which is depleted in cases of acetaminophen overdose, thus preventing liver damage. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and naltrexone is used in the management of opioid addiction and alcohol dependence, which are not indicated in the scenario described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct response is C) The medication will relieve your mother's constipation. Methylnaltrexone is a medication used to treat opioid-induced constipation in patients with chronic non-cancer pain and those with advanced illness receiving opioids for pain management, such as in end-stage cancer. Option A is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations. Option B is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not prevent dependence on Morphine; it specifically targets constipation. Option D is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to address constipation caused by opioid use. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind using adjunct medications such as Methylnaltrexone in patients receiving opioids to manage their symptoms effectively and improve their quality of life. By addressing opioid-induced constipation, healthcare providers can help patients continue their pain management regimen while minimizing uncomfortable side effects.