A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?

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Nursing Process Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.

Question 2 of 9

What is the nurse’s firstaction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. First, reviewing lab results for potassium level is important in assessing potential electrolyte imbalances that may contribute to the patient's symptoms. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition. Assessing the patient for other symptoms or problems is crucial to gather additional information. Finally, notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely communication and collaboration for appropriate care. Choice A is incorrect as following a clinical protocol for a stroke is premature without a comprehensive assessment. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication without a thorough assessment and provider notification can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the healthcare provider should precede administering any medication.

Question 3 of 9

Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.

Question 4 of 9

A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis as the client's concern about wearing a scarf around his neck post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image. This diagnosis addresses the client's emotional response to physical changes, which is common in surgical patients. Choice A is incorrect because impaired physical mobility is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf. Choice B is incorrect as ineffective denial does not directly address the client's specific concern about body image. Choice D is also incorrect as the risk of injury is not the primary issue in this scenario; it is more about the client's perception of their appearance post-surgery. In summary, the client's worry about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a disturbance in body image, making choice C the most appropriate nursing diagnosis.

Question 5 of 9

What equipment should the nurse prepare for the primary care provider when a woman says she is concerned about possible Chlamydia infection?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.

Question 6 of 9

Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage present, then will progress to more specific assessments based on the findings. This approach allows for a systematic and comprehensive evaluation of the patient's condition by moving from general observations to detailed examinations. Explanation: 1. General assessment: The nurse is initially assessing the overall appearance of the surgical dressing and the type of drainage. 2. Specific assessment: Based on the initial findings, the nurse will proceed to conduct more focused assessments, such as checking for signs of infection, monitoring vital signs, and assessing the surgical site for any complications. Other choices are incorrect: A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns - This framework focuses on assessing different aspects of an individual's health patterns, such as activity level, sleep patterns, and coping mechanisms. It is not the most appropriate approach in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment - This type of assessment focuses

Question 8 of 9

Which of the ff. positions is best for a chest drainage system when the patient is being transported by wheelchair?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.

Question 9 of 9

One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn frequently every 2 hours. This is because changing positions regularly helps to relieve pressure on specific areas, reducing the risk of developing decubitus ulcers. Turning every 2 hours helps to maintain blood flow and prevent tissue damage. A: Massaging reddened areas with lotion or oils can actually cause further damage by increasing friction and pressure on the skin. B: While using a special water mattress can help distribute pressure more evenly, it is not as effective as regular turning to prevent decubitus ulcers. D: Keeping the skin clean and dry is important for overall skin health but alone is not sufficient to prevent decubitus ulcers. Regular repositioning is crucial in reducing pressure and avoiding tissue breakdown.

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