ATI RN
Age Specific Nursing Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is hospitalized with anorexia nervosa states during a one-to-one session with the nurse, 'I'm freaking out. I'm losing it.' Which nurse response would be most therapeutic at this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings, aiding in the therapeutic process. This response promotes open communication and allows the nurse to assess the client's mental state. Choice A may not address the client's immediate distress and could potentially escalate anxiety. Choice B dismisses the client's feelings and does not address the issue. Choice C offers support but does not actively encourage the client to verbalize their thoughts, which is crucial in addressing underlying issues.
Question 2 of 5
The average age for onset of anorexia nervosa is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (17 years old) because anorexia nervosa typically manifests during adolescence, around ages 15-19. This age range coincides with the developmental stage where body image concerns and societal pressures are heightened. Choice A (13 years old) is too young for the typical onset. Choices C (33 years old) and D (40 years old) are too late for onset, as anorexia nervosa usually begins earlier in life.
Question 3 of 5
The first step in the creation of a therapeutic alliance between a nurse and a patient with a maladaptive response to eating regulation is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: formulation of a nurse-patient contract. This is because establishing a clear agreement outlining the roles, responsibilities, and boundaries between the nurse and patient is crucial in building trust and collaboration. It sets the foundation for a therapeutic alliance by promoting mutual understanding and shared goals. Summary: B: Resolving conflicts with family members may be important for overall well-being but is not the first step in creating a therapeutic alliance. C: Agreeing on the patient's body perception is important but does not address the fundamental establishment of trust through a contract. D: Specifying means of stabilizing nutritional status is essential but comes after the initial agreement on roles and responsibilities.
Question 4 of 5
A 14-year-old female comes into clinic for a medical certificate once a week for multiple complaints of chest pain and abdominal pain. The complaints are non-specific, and her physical examination is normal. She is quiet with poor eye contact. She states the pain is worse on school days. Her mother is concerned that her daughter is being bullied but won't talk to her. Her mother is also worried that her complaints represent an undiagnosed medical condition. The next best step in management is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best step in managing this situation is option B) HEADSS or other psychosocial screening. This approach is crucial in adolescent care as it aims to assess various aspects of the adolescent's life that may contribute to their presenting complaints. In this case, the girl's symptoms, along with her behavior and poor eye contact, suggest underlying psychosocial issues such as possible bullying or emotional distress. Conducting a HEADSS assessment can help uncover any stressors or mental health concerns that may be impacting her health. Referring her to a tertiary hospital to rule out an organic cause (option A) is premature at this stage since her symptoms are non-specific and her physical examination is normal. Jumping to this step without exploring psychosocial factors first may not address the root cause of her symptoms. Referral for counseling (option C) could be beneficial but should come after a comprehensive psychosocial assessment to determine the most appropriate intervention. Counseling alone may not address the underlying issues if they are related to social stressors or bullying. Reassuring her that nothing is wrong (option D) without further investigation could dismiss her concerns and potentially worsen her distress. It is important to validate her experiences and conduct a thorough assessment to provide appropriate support and intervention. Educationally, understanding the importance of psychosocial assessments in adolescent care is crucial for healthcare providers to provide holistic and patient-centered care. Teaching students to use tools like HEADSS can help them gather relevant information to better support adolescent patients facing various challenges. It also highlights the significance of addressing mental health and social factors in overall health management.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is not a psychiatric condition commonly associated with oppositional behaviour in children?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). PTSD is not typically associated with oppositional behavior in children. A) Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is commonly linked to oppositional behavior due to impulsivity and difficulty with self-regulation. B) Conduct Disorder is characterized by persistent patterns of violating societal norms and the rights of others, often exhibiting oppositional behaviors. D) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) can sometimes present with oppositional behaviors, stemming from challenges in communication and social interaction rather than intentional defiance. Educationally, understanding the different psychiatric conditions associated with oppositional behaviors in children is crucial for nurses providing care. Recognizing these distinctions helps in accurate assessment, planning appropriate interventions, and fostering effective communication with healthcare teams and families. It also aids in promoting a therapeutic environment that meets the specific needs of each child based on their diagnosis.