ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is HIV positive should have the mouth examined for which oral problem common associated with AIDS?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.
Question 2 of 5
An oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which one is accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Men can develop breast cancer. This is accurate because although breast cancer is more common in women, men can also develop the disease due to the presence of breast tissue in their bodies. This is a crucial point to emphasize to raise awareness about breast cancer among men. Incorrect choices: A: Mammography is not the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer, as it may not detect all types of breast cancer. B: Breast cancer is not the leading killer of women of childbearing age, as there are other leading causes of death in this age group. C: Breast cancer does not always require a mastectomy; treatment options vary depending on the individual case. Summary: Choice D is correct as it highlights the important fact that men can also develop breast cancer, which is often overlooked. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to inaccuracies or oversimplifications of the facts related to breast cancer detection, statistics, and treatment.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Question 4 of 5
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
Question 5 of 5
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.