ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
Question 2 of 5
What advice should the oncology nurse give to a client planning a beach vacation after completing radiation treatments for cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the skin at the radiation site is sensitive to sunlight, and exposure can cause further damage. It is crucial to protect the area from direct sunlight to prevent skin irritation or burns. Choice A is incorrect as salt water typically does not pose a significant risk to the radiation site. Choice C is a positive and encouraging response but does not provide necessary advice for post-radiation care. Choice D, while important in some cases, is not directly related to the client's beach vacation after completing radiation treatments.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.
Question 4 of 5
A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's anxiety and encourages reflection on his behavior. This approach can help the patient explore his feelings and thoughts about smoking in relation to his surgery, promoting self-awareness and potentially opening the door for a constructive discussion. Choices A and B are more directive and may not address the underlying anxiety and need for reflection. Choice D is also somewhat permissive about smoking before surgery, which may not be in the patient's best interest.
Question 5 of 5
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.
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