ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Chapter 11 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit and is taking Thorazine presents to the nurse with severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 105 F (40.5 C). The nurse identifies these symptoms as which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). NMS is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like Thorazine. The symptoms of severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and high fever are classic signs of NMS. NMS is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like organ failure and death. Tardive dyskinesia (B) is characterized by involuntary movements of the face and body, not muscle rigidity and fever. Acute dystonia (C) presents as sudden, sustained muscle contractions, not muscle rigidity and fever. Agranulocytosis (D) is a severe drop in white blood cells, leading to increased risk of infections, not the symptoms described in the question.
Question 2 of 5
A patient moving from chair to chair in the day room and pacing in the hallway repeatedly, rapidly, and for extended periods is likely demonstrating _________ , and the nurse should __________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: akathisia...administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO. Akathisia is characterized by restlessness and the inability to sit still, leading to constant movement like pacing. Diphenhydramine is commonly used to manage akathisia due to its anticholinergic effects that can help reduce these symptoms. Rationale: 1. Akathisia matches the patient's symptoms of constant movement and restlessness. 2. Diphenhydramine is a common treatment for akathisia due to its calming effects. 3. Administering diphenhydramine orally is appropriate for managing akathisia symptoms in a non-emergent situation. Summary: A: Dystonic reaction presents with muscle spasms, not constant movement like pacing. B: Anxiety does not typically manifest as constant pacing and may require different interventions. D: Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary movements and is
Question 3 of 5
For what severe skeletal muscle adverse reaction should the nurse observe in a patient taking rosuvastatin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe adverse reaction associated with statin use, including rosuvastatin. It is characterized by the breakdown of skeletal muscle tissue, leading to the release of muscle proteins into the bloodstream, potentially causing kidney damage. The nurse should monitor for symptoms such as muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine. Myasthenia gravis (A) is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder, not directly related to statin use. Dyskinesia (C) refers to abnormal involuntary movements, typically associated with neurological conditions. Agranulocytosis (D) is a blood disorder characterized by a severe decrease in white blood cells and is not a common adverse effect of rosuvastatin.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering medications to a client with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. The nurse would expect to see which medication ordered for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risperdal – atyp antipsych. In treating paranoid schizophrenia, atypical antipsychotics like Risperdal are preferred due to their lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics. Risperdal specifically targets psychotic symptoms, including paranoia, hallucinations, and delusions. Lithium (choice A) is typically used for bipolar disorder, Depakene (choice B) for seizures, and Neurontin (choice C) for anxiety and pain, none of which directly address the symptoms of paranoid schizophrenia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient’s spouse asks a nurse, “Why are they wasting money doing all these tests on my spouse? The hallucinations and delusions make the mental illness obvious!” The best reply would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it addresses the spouse's concern about the necessity of tests by explaining that physical illnesses can manifest as psychiatric symptoms. By ruling out physical causes, the healthcare team can accurately diagnose and treat the patient. Option A is dismissive and lacks a substantive explanation. Option B acknowledges the cost concern but does not address the underlying reason for the tests. Option D is invalidating and does not provide a logical reason for the testing. Thus, option C is the most appropriate response as it educates the spouse on the importance of ruling out physical illnesses in the diagnostic process.