ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sanguineous drainage from the surgical site 48 hours after surgery could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage or infection and should be reported. Sanguineous drainage is typically seen in the early postoperative period due to the presence of blood. Serous drainage, on the other hand, is normal in the later stages of wound healing. A heart rate of 80/min is within the normal range for an adult. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in the absence of other symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing a client in an elevator. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This is important because discussing a client's information violates confidentiality policies. Contacting the client's family (Choice A) is not appropriate as it may breach confidentiality further. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the initial action to take in this situation, as addressing it within the facility should come first. Filing a complaint with the facility's ethics committee (Choice C) is not the immediate step and might not directly address the issue at hand.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
Question 5 of 5
A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.
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