ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who has been taking prednisone to treat lupus erythematosus has discontinued the medication because of lack of funds to buy the drug. When the nurse becomes aware of the situation, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds – Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill – Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash – A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis. Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the "Where is the pain located?" question corresponds to the "P" component in the PQRST assessment, which stands for Provocative/Palliative factors. This question helps identify the specific location of the pain and what triggers or alleviates it. The other choices are incorrect because: - B: "What causes the pain?" corresponds to the "Q" component (Quality of pain), focusing on the characteristics of the pain. - C: "Does it come and go?" corresponds to the "R" component (Region/Radiation of pain), focusing on the pattern and radiation of the pain. - D: "What does the pain feel like?" corresponds to the "S" component (Severity of pain), focusing on the intensity of the pain.
Question 4 of 9
A factory worker suffered a chemical burn to the eye and arrives at the Emergency department. What is the first action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: flush the eye continuously with sterile solution. This is the first action because it helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Flushing with sterile solution dilutes and washes away the chemical, reducing the risk of ongoing injury. Applying a cold compress (A) may help with pain but does not address the chemical exposure. Applying a bandage (B) can trap the chemical and worsen the injury. Performing an assessment (C) should come after immediate treatment to ensure proper care but should not delay flushing the eye.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with asthma who has just been admitted to the health care facility. The nurse determines the client’s priorities for care using which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, assessment skills. Assessing the client's current condition, including respiratory status, is crucial in determining priorities for care in asthma management. By utilizing assessment skills, the nurse can gather essential information to identify the client's immediate needs and develop an individualized care plan. Nursing books (B) can provide general information but do not provide real-time data on the client's current status. Client's records (C) may contain historical information but may not reflect the client's current condition. Supervisor's advice (D) is important but should supplement rather than replace the nurse's assessment skills in determining immediate care priorities.
Question 6 of 9
The activation of B cells in humoral immunity is assisted by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells by releasing cytokines that stimulate B cell proliferation and differentiation. They also help in the production of antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells (A) are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not humoral immunity. Suppressor T cells (B) regulate the immune response and do not directly assist in B cell activation. Neutrophils (D) are phagocytic cells involved in innate immunity, not in activating B cells in humoral immunity.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This step is crucial for identifying the patient's needs and developing a holistic care plan. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses typically occurs in the second phase (diagnosis). Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on care priorities happens in the third phase (planning and implementation). Choice D is incorrect as determining outcomes achieved is part of the final phase (evaluation).
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because completing a comprehensive database is part of the first phase of the nursing process, which is assessment. During assessment, the nurse gathers data about the patient's health status. This information is crucial for identifying health problems, developing nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses is part of the second phase, which is diagnosis. Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on priorities of patient care is part of the third phase, which is planning. Choice D is incorrect because determining whether outcomes have been achieved is part of the fourth phase, which is evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as excess body fat, especially around the waist, can lead to inflammation and insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of cancerous cell growth in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung and other types of cancer, not specifically colon cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice C) is linked to other types of cancer, such as liver and esophageal cancer, but not as strongly to colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to an increased risk of colon cancer.