ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who has been taking prednisone to treat lupus erythematosus has discontinued the medication because of lack of funds to buy the drug. When the nurse becomes aware of the situation, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds – Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill – Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash – A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal saline solution. Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions, so options A and D are incorrect. Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which can interact with phenytoin, leading to precipitation. Therefore, option B is also incorrect. Normal saline is the most compatible diluent for phenytoin, maintaining the drug's stability and effectiveness. It is essential to use the appropriate diluent to prevent adverse reactions or drug interactions.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? This matches with the "Location" component of the PQRST. This question helps determine the specific area where the pain is occurring, providing crucial information for diagnosis and treatment. This step is important in identifying potential underlying issues related to the pain. Summary of other choices: B: What causes the pain? - This question relates to the "Provocation/Palliation" component, not the location. C: Does it come and go? - This question corresponds to the "Quality" component, focusing on the characteristics of the pain. D: What does the pain feel like? - This question aligns with the "Severity" component, concentrating on the intensity of the pain.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff does the examiner note when auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion, the examiner would note decreased or absent breath sounds over the area where the fluid has accumulated. This is due to the fluid blocking the transmission of sound through the lungs. Pronounced breath sounds (choice A) would not be present due to the fluid obstructing the normal sound transmission. Expiratory wheezes (choice B) are associated with airway obstruction, not fluid accumulation. Friction rub (choice C) is a dry, grating sound heard with inflammation of the pleura, not specifically related to pleural effusion.
Question 5 of 9
The best way to tell whether or not a patient is breathing, is for the nurse to watch the movement of the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Chest and nostrils." This is because observing the movement of the chest and nostrils is the most reliable way to determine if a patient is breathing. The chest rises and falls with each breath, and the nostrils may flare or move as air is inhaled and exhaled. Monitoring these areas provides a direct indication of respiratory effort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the act of breathing. Extremities, head, and eyeball movements are not reliable indicators of breathing function.
Question 6 of 9
As the nurse cares for a patient with angioedema, differs from urticaria in that angioedema is characterized by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: Angioedema differs from urticaria as it involves deeper swelling in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, leading to a more profound and firm texture. This contrasts with urticaria, which presents as superficial, raised wheals on the skin. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of other choices: A: Angioedema is not typically associated with intense itching, so it is not more pruritic than urticaria. B: Angioedema does not have small, fluid-filled vesicles like in allergic contact dermatitis. D: Angioedema tends to last longer than urticaria, making this statement incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
. A female client experiences trauma to her urinary tract during an accident. Which of the ff factors should the nurse consider while assessing the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings. This is crucial as trauma to the urinary tract can lead to various complications such as urinary retention, infection, or injury to surrounding structures. By assessing and recognizing abnormal findings, the nurse can promptly identify any issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice A (Assessment of sexual habits) may be important for assessing risk factors for urinary tract trauma, but it is not directly related to assessing the client's current condition post-accident. Choice C (Assessment of allergies to seafood) is irrelevant in this scenario as it does not impact the assessment of urinary tract trauma. Choice D (Assessment of insurance coverage) is not a priority when assessing a client's immediate health status post-accident.
Question 8 of 9
When preparing a site for venipunctures with alcohol, how long must the area be cleaned?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 60 seconds. This is because the area must be cleaned for at least 60 seconds to effectively disinfect the skin and reduce the risk of infection during venipuncture. Cleaning for shorter durations (5, 10, or 30 seconds) may not be sufficient to achieve proper disinfection. Thoroughly cleaning the area for a full minute ensures that the alcohol has enough time to kill bacteria and pathogens on the skin, making it safer for the venipuncture procedure. Shorter cleaning times may leave pathogens behind, increasing the risk of contamination and infection.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat. Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe. Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection. Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF. Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF. Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.