ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.
Question 2 of 9
A new nurse writes the following nursing diagnoses on a patient’s care plan. Which nursing diagnosis will cause the nurse manager to intervene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. The nurse manager would intervene because hemorrhage is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Wandering (A), urinary retention (C), and impaired swallowing (D) are important assessments but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as hemorrhage. The nurse manager would prioritize addressing the hemorrhage to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 3 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.
Question 4 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.
Question 5 of 9
For a client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on the client actively engaging in reducing tension, which is essential in managing anxiety. This outcome is measurable and client-centered. A: Verbalizing feelings is important, but it does not necessarily lead to reduction in anxiety. B: Not guessing prognosis is helpful, but it does not address the active management of anxiety. D: Stopping seeking information may not be beneficial as knowledge can empower the client in coping with the diagnosis.
Question 6 of 9
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
Question 7 of 9
A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.
Question 8 of 9
Mrs. Tan is scheduled to undergo percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Which of the following is the priority goal for her immediately after the procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: maintain blood pressure control. After PTCA, the priority goal is to ensure stable hemodynamics. Maintaining blood pressure control is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because preventing fluid volume deficit, decreasing myocardial contractility, and minimizing dyspnea are not immediate priorities post-PTCA. Oxygenation and hemodynamic stability take precedence over these concerns.
Question 9 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. This is a common AIDS-related cancer caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) in immunosuppressed individuals. It presents as purplish lesions on the skin and mucous membranes. Squamous cell carcinoma (A) is not specific to AIDS. Leukemia (B) and Multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Kaposi’s sarcoma is the hallmark cancer seen in AIDS patients due to their weakened immune system.