A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring the client's temperature before, during, and after the transfusion allows the nurse to identify any changes or trends that may indicate a complication related to the blood transfusion. This comprehensive monitoring helps differentiate between a normal body response to cold blood infusion and a potential adverse reaction. Choice B is incorrect because documenting the client's temperature only after the transfusion may miss important changes during the process. Choice C is incorrect as the temperature of the blood before transfusion does not directly indicate the client's response to the chilled blood. Choice D is incorrect as comparing the client's temperature with the temperature of the blood alone does not provide a complete picture of the client's condition throughout the transfusion process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to report the ulcer to the admitting care provider first. This is essential because the ulcer could be a sign of an underlying infection or condition that needs immediate attention, especially in a hospitalized patient with pneumonia. Reporting the ulcer ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate treatment. The other options are incorrect because teaching about STD prevention and asking about syphilis assume the cause of the ulcer is related to a sexually transmitted infection, which may not be the case in this scenario. Additionally, cleaning the ulcer without proper assessment and diagnosis by a healthcare provider can lead to complications or delay in appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, nausea and abdominal pain are symptoms that can only be described by the patient, making them subjective data. Vomiting, pulse rate, respirations, blood pressure, pale skin, and thick toenails are all objective data, as they can be measured or observed directly by the healthcare provider. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid retention and weight gain. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause fluid retention and weight gain as common adverse reactions. Here's the rationale: Prednisone is known to increase sodium and water retention in the body, leading to fluid retention and subsequent weight gain. This occurs due to the drug's impact on the body's electrolyte balance. Tetany and tremors (Choice A) are not common adverse reactions associated with prednisone use. Anorexia and weight loss (Choice C) are also not typical reactions, as prednisone is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice D, "None of the above," is incorrect as prednisone commonly causes fluid retention and weight gain as adverse reactions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pronation-supination of the hand and forearm is a characteristic movement in Parkinson's disease called "pill-rolling tremor." This movement interferes with normal hand activities due to involuntary shaking. A is incorrect because exaggerated muscle flaccidity does not lead to frequent falls in Parkinson's disease. B is incorrect as hyperextension of the back and neck is not a characteristic movement of Parkinson's disease. D is incorrect as it combines all options, which is not accurate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status. 2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections. 3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration. 4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids. Summary: Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.