ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.
Question 2 of 9
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.
Question 3 of 9
Decreasing level of consciousness is a symptom of which of the following physiological phenomena?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased ICP. Decreasing level of consciousness is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to the compression of the brain. As ICP rises, it impairs cerebral perfusion leading to altered mental status. Parasympathetic response (B) and sympathetic response (C) are related to autonomic nervous system functions, not consciousness. Increased cerebral blood flow (D) might lead to conditions like hyperemia but does not directly cause a decreased level of consciousness.
Question 4 of 9
A client with suspected lymphoma is scheduled for lymphangiography. The nurse should inform the client that this procedure may cause which harmless, temporary change?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Redness of the upper part of the feet. During lymphangiography, a contrast dye is injected into the lymphatic vessels. This may cause temporary redness in the upper part of the feet due to the dye spreading throughout the lymphatic system. Purplish stools (A), bluish urine (C), and coldness of the soles (D) are not expected side effects of lymphangiography and do not have a direct correlation with the procedure.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse has been caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What should the nurse focus on during the evaluation phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because during the evaluation phase of nursing care for a client with COPD, the nurse should review the client's progress toward meeting the goals set during the planning phase. This involves assessing whether the interventions implemented are effective in improving the client's condition and if the goals are being achieved. This step is crucial in determining the overall effectiveness of the care provided and making any necessary adjustments to the plan. A: Documenting interventions is important but not the primary focus during the evaluation phase. C: Delegating further care is not typically done during the evaluation phase as it is more about assessing the current care plan. D: Ensuring compliance with physician orders is important but does not encompass the holistic evaluation of the client's progress towards goals.
Question 6 of 9
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse assesses for the characteristic movement of Parkinson’s disease which is a (n):
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pronation-supination of the hand and forearm is a characteristic movement in Parkinson's disease called "pill-rolling tremor." This movement interferes with normal hand activities due to involuntary shaking. A is incorrect because exaggerated muscle flaccidity does not lead to frequent falls in Parkinson's disease. B is incorrect as hyperextension of the back and neck is not a characteristic movement of Parkinson's disease. D is incorrect as it combines all options, which is not accurate.
Question 8 of 9
To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is crucial for preventing infection when accessing or caring for an invasive monitoring system like a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field, washing hands, using sterile gloves, and using sterile supplies to minimize the risk of contamination. This is essential to prevent introducing harmful microorganisms into the patient's system. Using clean technique (B) or sterile technique only when cleansing the insertion site (C) may not provide adequate protection against infection. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (D) is not an appropriate method for preventing infection and can lead to complications.
Question 9 of 9
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breath cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy. Chemotherapy can cause renal damage, leading to decreased urine output. This can result in fluid retention and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range. Choice C is incorrect as the blood pressure readings provided are within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips are more indicative of dehydration rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy.