ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. Sigmoidoscopy is a direct visualization procedure that allows for examination of the lower part of the colon and rectum, where colorectal cancer commonly occurs. This procedure can help identify any abnormal growths or polyps that may indicate cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in stool but does not confirm colorectal cancer. Abdominal CT (B) provides imaging of the abdomen but may not definitively diagnose colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker associated with colorectal cancer but is not a definitive diagnostic test. Thus, sigmoidoscopy is the most appropriate diagnostic study for confirming colorectal cancer.
Question 2 of 9
A patient’s serum sodium is within normal range. The nurse estimates that serum osmolality should be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (280 to 295mOsm/kg) because serum osmolality is primarily determined by sodium, glucose, and blood urea nitrogen levels. Normal serum sodium range is 135-145 mEq/L, which corresponds to an osmolality range of 280-295 mOsm/kg. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with normal serum sodium levels. Choice D is incorrect as it includes an excessively wide range that is not consistent with normal osmolality values.
Question 3 of 9
A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.
Question 4 of 9
A client diagnosed with DIC is ordered heparin. What is the reason for this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.
Question 5 of 9
The couple with the lowest risk of having a child with sickle cell disease is the one in which the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. The disease is caused by inheriting two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene (HbS). In choice D, the father is HbA (normal) and the mother is HbS (carrier). This combination ensures that the child will inherit one normal gene and one abnormal gene, making them a carrier like the mother but not affected by the disease. Choices A, B, and C all involve at least one parent who carries the HbS gene, increasing the risk of the child having sickle cell disease.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.
Question 7 of 9
The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows: 1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief. 2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours. 3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs. Summary: - Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order. - Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision. - Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is dangling at the bedside and states, “Oh, my stomach is tearing open.” Which of the following actions should the nurse immediately take when dehiscence occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have patient lie down. When a patient experiences dehiscence (surgical wound separation), lying down helps reduce tension on the wound, minimizing the risk of further tearing. This position also allows the nurse to assess the wound properly. Choice A is incorrect because sitting upright can increase intra-abdominal pressure, worsening the dehiscence. Choice C is incorrect as slowing IV fluids is not a priority in managing dehiscence. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a sterile suture set should only be done by a healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed for dehiscence.
Question 9 of 9
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because right-sided weakness is typically associated with damage or impairment in the left lobe of the brain. The brain controls the opposite side of the body, so weakness on the right side indicates left brain involvement. This is known as contralateral control. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left brain damage, problems in judging distance and proprioception are related to parietal lobe damage, and orientation to time and space is more related to frontal lobe damage. Therefore, the most accurate analysis by the nurse would be to consider the affected lobe as the right lobe in this case.