A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;

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Question 1 of 9

A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.

Question 2 of 9

A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.

Question 3 of 9

Several hours after returning from surgery, the nurse tells the patient that she is ordered to be ambulated. The patient asks, “Why?” Which of the following complications would the nurse correctly explain can be prevented by early postoperative ambulation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pneumonia. Early postoperative ambulation helps prevent pneumonia by promoting lung expansion, increasing oxygenation, and preventing atelectasis. A: Increased peristalsis is unrelated to ambulation. B: Coughing is important for airway clearance but not directly related to ambulation. D: Wound healing is influenced by various factors, but ambulation primarily impacts respiratory function.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is implementing interventions for a group of patients. Which actions are nursing interventions? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Repositioning a patient who is on bed rest is a nursing intervention as it involves direct patient care to prevent complications like pressure ulcers. Step 2: Nursing interventions aim to promote patient health, prevent illness, and provide comfort. Step 3: Ordering chest x-ray and prescribing antibiotics are medical interventions, beyond the scope of nursing practice. Step 4: Teaching preoperative exercises falls under nursing education but not a direct nursing intervention involving patient care. Summary: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the essence of nursing interventions focusing on patient care and wellbeing. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that are not within the scope of nursing interventions.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? This question corresponds to the "P" in PQRST, which stands for Provocation/Palliation. By asking where the pain is located, the nurse is gathering information about what triggers or relieves the pain, aiding in the assessment of the chest pain. The other choices are incorrect because: B: What causes the pain? - This question corresponds to the "Q" in PQRST, which stands for Quality. It focuses on understanding the characteristics of the pain, not the cause. C: Does it come and go? - This question corresponds to the "R" in PQRST, which stands for Radiation. It pertains to whether the pain spreads to other areas, not if it comes and goes. D: What does the pain feel like? - This question corresponds to the "S" in PQRST, which stands for Severity. It relates to the intensity of the pain, not its location.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is teaching the staff about the benefits of Nursing Outcomes Classification. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Nursing Outcomes Classification adds objectivity to judging a patient's progress by providing standardized criteria for assessing outcomes. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and tracking improvements accurately. Other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because Nursing Outcomes Classification includes 7 domains but not necessarily for level 1; B is incorrect as it uses a 5-point Likert scale, not a 3-point scale; and D is inaccurate because Nursing Outcomes Classification guides the selection of interventions based on the identified outcomes, not allowing complete freedom in choosing interventions.

Question 7 of 9

A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion occurs when bacteria enter the brain tissue directly, such as through trauma or surgery. Infections from other organs, like the lungs or heart, can spread through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites, such as the ears or sinuses, can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct choice.

Question 8 of 9

A few hours before the patient was admitted at the hospital, he complained of fever, nausea and vomiting, and vague abdominal pain. The doctor examined the patient as a case of acute appendicitis and prepared for appendectomy. The nurse anticipates that this type of surgery is classified as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. Acute appendicitis is a condition that requires immediate surgical intervention to prevent complications like rupture. In an emergency surgery, the procedure must be done urgently to treat a life-threatening condition. In this case, the patient's symptoms indicate an urgent need for surgery to remove the inflamed appendix. Choice B: urgent, implies that surgery is needed promptly, but not immediately to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice C: elective, refers to a planned, non-urgent surgery that is scheduled in advance. Choice D: required, is a vague term and doesn't specify the urgency of the surgery, hence it is not the best classification for acute appendicitis surgery.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the ff does the examiner note when auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. When auscultating the lungs of a client with pleural effusion, the examiner would note decreased or absent breath sounds over the area where the fluid has accumulated. This is due to the fluid blocking the transmission of sound through the lungs. Pronounced breath sounds (choice A) would not be present due to the fluid obstructing the normal sound transmission. Expiratory wheezes (choice B) are associated with airway obstruction, not fluid accumulation. Friction rub (choice C) is a dry, grating sound heard with inflammation of the pleura, not specifically related to pleural effusion.

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