A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wait for the patient to complete the sentence. This is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia because rushing the patient or providing suggestions can be counterproductive. Waiting allows the patient time to find the words they are looking for and encourages communication. It shows respect for the patient's autonomy and gives them the opportunity to express themselves fully. Choice B may overwhelm the patient, Choice C disrupts the communication process, and Choice D may not align with the patient's intended communication. Patience and support are key in aiding a patient with aphasia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presbycusis. Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, commonly affecting higher frequencies. As people age, changes in the inner ear structures can lead to hearing loss. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to correct ear deformities, not related to aging. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not specifically related to aging. Tinnitus (D) is the perception of ringing or buzzing in the ears, which can occur at any age and is not exclusive to age-related hearing loss.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety related to barium enema. This is the correct choice because nursing diagnoses should focus on the patient's actual or potential health problems, not just medical conditions. Anxiety is a common response to medical procedures like a barium enema. It is essential for the nurse to address the patient's emotional and psychological needs. Summary: B: Impaired gas exchange related to asthma is a medical diagnosis, not a nursing diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses focus on the patient's response to the medical condition. C: Impaired physical mobility related to incisional pain is a potential nursing diagnosis, but the focus should be on the patient's response to the pain, not just the pain itself. D: Nausea related to adverse effect of cancer medication is also a medical diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses should address the patient's response to the medication side effects, not just the side effects themselves.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client's spouse. In the case of an unconscious client, the spouse is the primary source of information about the client's medical history, medications, allergies, and recent events. This information is crucial for providing appropriate care. Medical records may not be immediately accessible. Diagnostic tests provide limited historical information. Nursing assessment relies on the client's condition, which may not provide comprehensive information.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a common sign of organ rejection after heart transplantation, indicating possible heart failure. Low white blood cell count (A) is not typically a direct sign of organ rejection. ECG changes (C) may occur but are not specific to organ rejection. Fever (D) is a non-specific symptom and can be caused by various factors. Dyspnea is a key indicator that the transplanted heart is not functioning properly and should be closely monitored.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Slowing ventilation. The lungs regulate acid-base balance by controlling carbon dioxide levels through ventilation. Increasing ventilation helps expel excess carbon dioxide, thus regulating pH. Slowing ventilation would lead to CO2 buildup and an imbalance in acid-base levels. Excreting HCO3- into the blood (choice A) helps maintain pH, while increasing ventilation (choice D) aids in removing excess CO2. Therefore, slowing ventilation is the exception as it would disrupt the acid-base balance by not effectively regulating carbon dioxide levels.