A client’s blood glucose levels remain elevated despite adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. What is the nurse’s best action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because reassessing the client's diet, medication, and lifestyle habits allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. By identifying possible issues, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to better manage the client's condition. Increasing medication dosage without understanding the root cause may lead to adverse effects. Simply documenting the elevated levels without taking proactive measures does not address the problem. Notifying the client's family is not the nurse's first action; the focus should be on assessing and addressing the client's needs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in the humoral immune response, B cells are stimulated by T helper cells or macrophages to differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies or memory cells. This process involves the production of specific antibodies that target the foreign antigen. Choice A is incorrect because B cells do not phagocytize antigens; instead, they produce antibodies. Choice B is incorrect because T cells do not turn into plasma cells. It is the B cells that differentiate into plasma cells in the humoral immune response. Choice D is incorrect because T cells do not produce antibodies. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not the humoral immune response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have patient lie down. When a patient experiences dehiscence (surgical wound separation), lying down helps reduce tension on the wound, minimizing the risk of further tearing. This position also allows the nurse to assess the wound properly. Choice A is incorrect because sitting upright can increase intra-abdominal pressure, worsening the dehiscence. Choice C is incorrect as slowing IV fluids is not a priority in managing dehiscence. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a sterile suture set should only be done by a healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed for dehiscence.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bence jones protein in the urine. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excess monoclonal immunoglobulins, including Bence Jones proteins, which can be detected in the urine. This is a hallmark finding in multiple myeloma diagnosis. A: Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels are typically not affected in multiple myeloma. C: Incorrect. Hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, is commonly seen in multiple myeloma due to bone destruction. D: Incorrect. Multiple myeloma often presents with high serum protein levels, not low levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because measuring oxygen saturation will provide objective data to assess the client's respiratory status accurately. This step is crucial in identifying the severity of the client's breathing difficulty and determining the appropriate intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (B) may worsen the client's condition if there is an underlying respiratory problem. Simply documenting the client's statement (C) without immediate action can delay necessary interventions. Providing oxygen without further assessment (D) can be harmful if the client's oxygen saturation is already high. Overall, option A is the most appropriate as it involves a proactive and evidence-based approach to address the client's reported breathing difficulty.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates because pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange. The nurse correctly identified the underlying respiratory issue. A: Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia is incorrect as it focuses on the pattern of breathing rather than the physiological problem causing the breathing difficulty. B: Risk for infection related to chest x-ray procedure is incorrect as the patient already has a diagnosis of pneumonia, so the focus should be on managing the existing condition. C: Risk for deficient fluid volume related to dehydration is incorrect as there is no indication of dehydration in the question stem. In summary, the nurse's diagnosis of Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes is the most appropriate as it addresses the respiratory issue caused by pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal