Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.

Question 2 of 5

The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing the 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves involves assessing eye movements. The trochlear nerve controls downward and inward eye movement, while the abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement. Asking the patient to follow the finger with their eyes tests the function of both nerves simultaneously. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically target the 4th and 6th cranial nerves, making them incorrect options.

Question 3 of 5

When the LPN is assisting the patient to use an incentive spirometer, which of the following actions by the patient indicates that the patient needs further teaching on how to use the spirometer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because exhaling deeply before using the spirometer is incorrect. The purpose of the incentive spirometer is to encourage deep inhalation to improve lung function. Exhaling deeply before using the spirometer goes against this goal and may hinder the effectiveness of the device. Choices A, B, and C are all correct actions when using the spirometer. Taking two normal breaths helps to prepare the lungs, sitting upright optimizes lung expansion, and inhaling deeply to reach the target helps to improve lung ventilation.

Question 4 of 5

Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if the patient with Bell’s Palsy is receiving adequate nutrition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess swallowing reflex. This is crucial for a patient with Bell's Palsy as it can affect their ability to swallow properly, leading to inadequate nutrition intake. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine if the patient is at risk of aspiration or difficulty in eating, which directly impacts their nutrition status. Monitoring meal trays (A) may not provide accurate information on actual food intake. Checking weights (B) only gives limited information on nutrition status. Measuring intake and output (C) is important for fluid balance but may not directly reflect adequate nutrition intake.

Question 5 of 5

A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.

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