ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client receiving ferrous sulfate (Fer-Iron) therapy to treat an iron deficiency reports taking an antacid frequently to relieve heart burn. Which nursing instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is evaluating whether a patient’s turning schedule was effective in preventing the formation of pressure ulcers. Which finding indicates success of the turning schedule?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the absence of skin breakdown indicates that the turning schedule was effective in preventing pressure ulcers. Skin breakdown is a key indicator of pressure ulcer development, so its absence suggests that the patient's skin integrity was maintained. Choice A is incorrect because documentation alone does not guarantee successful prevention. Choice B is incorrect as redness on the heels can still indicate the early stages of pressure ulcers. Choice C is unrelated to skin integrity and pressure ulcer prevention.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff is the potential complication the nurse should monitor for when caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal failure. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis, causing decreased perfusion to the kidneys and potentially leading to renal failure. Monitoring for signs of renal failure, such as decreased urine output and elevated creatinine levels, is crucial in managing clients with ARDS. Incorrect choices: A: Chest wall bulging is not a common complication of ARDS. It may be seen in conditions like tension pneumothorax. C: Difficulty swallowing is not a typical complication of ARDS. It may be seen in neurological conditions or esophageal disorders. D: Orthopnea is not a direct complication of ARDS. It is more commonly associated with heart failure or pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse adds the following diagnosis to a patient’s care plan: Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal motility secondary to pain medication administration as evidenced by the patient reporting no bowel movement in seven days, abdominal distention, and abdominal pain. Which element did the nurse write as the defining characteristic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased gastrointestinal motility. This is the defining characteristic because it directly links the cause (pain medication administration) to the effect (constipation). The patient's lack of bowel movement, abdominal distention, and pain are all consequences of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Pain medication slows down the movement of the intestines, leading to constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they are related to the patient's condition, they are not the defining characteristic that connects the cause to the effect in this specific scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Beverly is giving preoperative instructions to Ian who is scheduled for an Ileostomy. Which of the following would be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an Ileostomy involves diverting the small intestine to an opening in the abdominal wall, so the urine will not be affected. The pouch collects waste from the small intestine. Nasogastric tube (B) is not typically required for an Ileostomy. Laparoscope (C) is used for visualizing the abdomen, not the bowel. Drinking liquids (D) so soon after surgery can be risky and is not recommended.
Question 6 of 9
As the nurse collects data on a patient, which of the following is a symptom that may be found that the patient with anaphylaxis may be experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wheezing. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to airway constriction and difficulty breathing, resulting in wheezing. Wheezing is a common symptom of anaphylaxis due to bronchospasm and airway swelling. Dermatitis (A) is a skin reaction, sinusitis (B) is inflammation of the sinuses, and delirium (C) is a state of mental confusion, which are not typical symptoms of anaphylaxis. Wheezing is a critical symptom in anaphylaxis as it indicates potential airway compromise and the need for immediate medical intervention.
Question 7 of 9
A client comes to her health care provider’s office because she is having abdominal pain. She has been seen for this problem before. What type of assessment would the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the client's abdominal pain is a known issue, so a focused assessment would be appropriate to gather specific information related to the current complaint. A focused assessment allows the nurse to concentrate on the particular problem at hand, which in this case is the abdominal pain. A: Initial assessment is not applicable as the client has been seen for this issue before. C: Emergency assessment is not necessary as the situation does not indicate an urgent or life-threatening condition. D: Time-lapsed assessment is not suitable because it involves assessing changes over time, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. In summary, a focused assessment is the most appropriate choice as it allows the nurse to address the client's specific complaint efficiently.
Question 8 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 9 of 9
During the nursing interview Toni minimizes her visual problems talks about remaining in school to attempt advanced degrees, requests information about full-time jobs in nursing and mentions her desire to have several more children. The nurse recognizes her emotional responses as being:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Toni's behavior of minimizing her visual problems, focusing on future goals, seeking information about job opportunities, and expressing desire for more children reflects coping mechanisms used to deal with the exacerbation of her illness. This behavior suggests that she is trying to maintain a sense of normalcy and control in the face of her health challenges. A: Inappropriate euphoria is excessive happiness or excitement, which is not evident in Toni's behavior. C: Remission phase typically involves a decrease in symptoms, which is not reflected in Toni's situation. D: Realistic for her current level of physical functioning does not explain her behavior as coping mechanisms.