ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client receiving ferrous sulfate (Fer-Iron) therapy to treat an iron deficiency reports taking an antacid frequently to relieve heart burn. Which nursing instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Go is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax. She should be positioned:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in a semi-fowler's position. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by allowing the unaffected lung to expand fully. It also prevents further compression of the affected lung. Trendelenburg position (B) could worsen the pneumothorax by causing more pressure on the affected lung. Prone position (C) is not recommended as it can further compress the affected lung. Placing the patient on the right side (D) would not be beneficial in this case as it does not facilitate lung expansion on the affected side.
Question 3 of 9
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, "Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting." This option correctly identifies the cause of the fluid volume deficit as uncontrolled vomiting, which is a common reason for fluid loss. The nursing diagnosis should always reflect the underlying cause of the issue. A is incorrect as "furrow tongue" is not a recognized medical term related to fluid volume deficit. C is incorrect because dehydration is not typically related to subnormal body temperature unless it is severe. D is incorrect as incessant vomiting is more specific to the cause, but the term "dehydration" should be used instead of "fluid volume deficit" in this context. In summary, option B is the appropriate nursing diagnosis as it accurately links the fluid volume deficit to the cause of uncontrolled vomiting.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff suggestions should a nurse give breastfeeding mothers to prevent or eliminate mastitis and breast abscess? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: D is correct because cleanliness helps prevent infections. Washing hands and keeping breasts clean reduces the risk of mastitis and abscesses. A is incorrect because alternating breasts is a common practice in breastfeeding. B is incorrect as frequent nursing helps maintain milk supply and prevent engorgement, reducing the risk of mastitis. C is incorrect as breastfeeding itself is not a cause of mastitis or abscess; stopping abruptly can lead to further complications like engorgement.
Question 6 of 9
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer is indeed a highly curable type of cancer if detected early through self-examinations. This empowers the client to take control of their health. Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is detectable through self-examinations. Choice C is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the number one cause of cancer deaths in males; it is relatively rare. Choice D is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.
Question 8 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse give to clients with HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease the intake of trace elements and antioxidant supplements. Clients with HIV/AIDS do not require additional trace elements and antioxidant supplements, as excessive intake can be harmful. HIV/AIDS already places stress on the immune system, so taking excessive supplements may lead to toxicity. It is important to focus on a balanced diet rich in essential nutrients rather than overloading the body with unnecessary supplements. Encouraging a healthy, balanced diet will help support overall health and immune function in clients with HIV/AIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because encouraging excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, iron, and zinc can also lead to potential adverse effects. It is important to focus on meeting the recommended daily allowances for these nutrients rather than exceeding them.
Question 9 of 9
An adult has been diagnosed with some type of anemia. The results of his blood tests showed: decreased WBC, normal RBC, decreased HCT, decreased Hgb. Based on these data, which of the following nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize as the most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potential for infection. The decreased WBC count indicates reduced ability to fight off infections, making this the priority nursing diagnosis. Normal RBC count rules out anemia-related complications. Decreased HCT and Hgb indicate possible anemia but do not directly relate to infection risk. Choices B and C are not as critical as the potential for infection due to the significant impact on the individual's health and well-being. Choice D, fluid volume excess, is not directly related to the blood test results provided.