A client received butorphanol 2 mg intravenously 10 minutes before delivery. Which nursing action is appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have naloxone available. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist that can cause respiratory depression in the mother and baby. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, such as respiratory depression. Having naloxone available is crucial in case the client experiences respiratory depression post-delivery due to the butorphanol administration. Administering butorphanol subcutaneously (A) is not recommended as the client has already received it intravenously. Administering intravenous fluid bolus (C) may not directly address the potential respiratory depression caused by butorphanol. Placing oxygen 10 L by nasal cannula (D) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address the opioid effects of butorphanol.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Choice B is correct as eye ointments are indeed administered in the lower conjunctival sac from the inner to the outer eye to prevent contamination. This technique ensures that the medication spreads evenly across the eye surface. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as not all preterm infants receive ophthalmic drugs. Choice C is incorrect as the drug may not necessarily prevent congenital ophthalmic diseases. Choice D is incorrect as the direct Coombs test is unrelated to the administration of ophthalmic drugs in newborns.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's T-score of -2.0 indicates osteoporosis, which typically requires treatment with bisphosphonates to prevent further bone loss. Bisphosphonates help to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Option A is incorrect as calcium alone may not be sufficient to treat osteoporosis without other medications. Option B is incorrect because while weight-bearing exercises are beneficial for bone health, they are not enough to treat osteoporosis alone. Option D is incorrect as it only includes calcium and vitamin D supplementation, which may not be enough for a patient with osteoporosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lower extremity edema associated with androgen therapy is not increased by corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can actually help reduce inflammation and swelling. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the patient that corticosteroids do not exacerbate edema from androgen therapy. For the incorrect choices: B is incorrect because both men and women can be prescribed androgen replacement therapy if clinically indicated. C is incorrect because androgen therapy is not safe in pregnancy and can have harmful effects on the fetus. D is incorrect because androgen therapy can indeed affect glucose levels, cholesterol, and thyroid and liver functioning.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: hCG. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the developing embryo and maintains the corpus luteum during early pregnancy. It stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum, which is essential for maintaining the uterine lining to support the developing embryo. Progesterone helps prevent menstruation and supports the pregnancy. Estrogen (choice B) plays a role in the menstrual cycle but does not specifically maintain the corpus luteum. LH (choice D) is responsible for ovulation but does not maintain the corpus luteum. Therefore, hCG is the correct choice as it directly supports the function of the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.