ATI RN
Mental Health ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client presents with psychotic symptoms: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech and behavior. They do not have medical comorbidities and do not use any substances. The signs have been present for five months. What diagnosis is suspected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct diagnosis suspected in this case is C: schizophreniform disorder. This is because the client is experiencing psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and behavior for a period of five months. Schizophreniform disorder is characterized by similar symptoms to schizophrenia but with a duration of at least one month but less than six months. Delusional disorder (A) involves persistent delusions without other psychotic symptoms. Brief psychotic disorder (B) lasts less than one month. Schizophrenia (D) requires symptoms to be present for at least six months.
Question 2 of 5
A client with premature ejaculation is prescribed sertraline as part of the treatment plan. The nurse explains the medication to the client, informing him that the effectiveness of the drug will most likely be evident in approximately which time frame?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1 to 2 weeks. Sertraline is an antidepressant that can help with premature ejaculation. It typically takes 1 to 2 weeks for the medication to start showing effectiveness due to the need for the drug to reach a therapeutic level in the body. This time frame allows the client's body to adjust to the medication and for the serotonin levels to stabilize, resulting in improved control over ejaculation. Choices A (5 to 7 days), C (3 to 4 weeks), and D (6 to 8 weeks) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical onset of action for sertraline. A shorter time frame like 5 to 7 days is usually insufficient for the drug to reach therapeutic levels, while longer time frames like 3 to 4 weeks or 6 to 8 weeks exceed the typical onset of action for this medication.
Question 3 of 5
When a female Mexican American patient and a female nurse sit together, the patient often holds the nurse's han The patient also links arms with the nurse when they walk. The nurse is uncomfortable with this behavior. Which analysis is most accurate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In many Hispanic subcultures, including Mexican American culture, touch is commonly used during conversation as a form of connection and warmth. This behavior is considered a cultural norm and a way to establish rapport. The patient's actions are likely not intended to manipulate the nurse or control the relationship, as suggested in choices B and D. Choice C assumes the patient's behavior is solely driven by fear of being alone, which may not be the case. Overall, the most accurate analysis is that the patient is accustomed to touch as a cultural norm within Hispanic subcultures, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
Tomas is a 21-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Tomas's nurse recognizes that self-medicating with excessive alcohol is common in this disease and can co-occur along with:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety and depression. Schizophrenia is often accompanied by co-occurring anxiety and depression. This is because individuals with schizophrenia may experience significant levels of stress, fear, and sadness due to their symptoms. Alcohol is commonly used as a form of self-medication to cope with these negative emotions. Explanation for other choices: A: Generally good health despite the mental illness - This is incorrect because individuals with schizophrenia often have physical health issues due to poor self-care and lifestyle choices. B: An aversion to drinking fluids - This is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between schizophrenia and aversion to drinking fluids. D: The ability to express his needs - This is incorrect as individuals with schizophrenia may struggle to express their needs effectively due to communication difficulties associated with the disorder.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reading an article about a young girl who developed gastrointestinal symptoms from a hairball because of a ritual that she engaged in. The girl would pull out hair over several hours to relieve tension and anxiety and then eat the hair. The nurse most likely is reading an article about which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichotillomania. Trichotillomania is a disorder characterized by the compulsive urge to pull out one's hair, leading to hair loss. In this case, the young girl's behavior of pulling out hair to relieve tension and anxiety aligns with the symptoms of trichotillomania. Kleptomania (A) is the urge to steal items, not related to hair pulling. Pyromania (C) is the urge to set fires, not related to hair pulling. Intermittent explosive disorder (D) involves episodes of impulsive aggression, not related to hair pulling.