ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client prescribed fluoxetine for depression is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine can cause drowsiness, affecting a person's ability to drive safely. It is essential to avoid driving until the client knows how the medication affects them to ensure safety. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is recommended to be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not specifically to avoid stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because fluoxetine is typically prescribed for depression or other mood disorders on a daily basis, not as needed for anxiety.
Question 2 of 9
When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.
Question 3 of 9
In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Question 4 of 9
A client has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse provide during discharge?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) due to the increased risk of side effects like seizures. Alcohol can interact with bupropion and worsen its side effects, making it important to abstain from alcohol consumption during the treatment. Option A is incorrect because taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for medications and not specific to bupropion. Option B is incorrect as abruptly stopping bupropion can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Option D is incorrect as doubling the dose of bupropion is dangerous and should not be done, even if a dose is missed.
Question 5 of 9
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.
Question 8 of 9
A client has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize during discharge instructions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid foods high in tyramine. Clients taking MAOIs should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Tyramine is found in aged, fermented, or spoiled foods. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium, calcium, and sodium restrictions are not specifically required for clients taking MAOIs.
Question 9 of 9
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed an SSRI for major depressive disorder, the nurse should closely monitor for an increased risk of suicide, especially in younger patients, during the initial weeks of treatment. SSRIs may initially increase energy levels before improving mood, which can lead to a higher risk of suicide in some individuals. Weight loss is not a common side effect of SSRIs and may actually be a concern for some patients with major depressive disorder who experience appetite changes. Hypertension is not typically associated with SSRIs, and photosensitivity is not a common side effect of this class of medications.