ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
Question 4 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.
Question 5 of 9
A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Epididymitis is characterized by inflammation of the epididymis, causing symptoms such as severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Choice A is incorrect as burning and pain on urination are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling, is not commonly associated with epididymitis. Choice D, foul-smelling urine and pain on urination, may indicate a urinary tract infection but are not specific to epididymitis.
Question 6 of 9
Why may an ice collar be ordered for a client who is undergoing drainage of a peritonsillar abscess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent respiratory obstruction. An ice collar is used to reduce swelling and inflammation, which can help prevent the abscess from compressing the airway and causing respiratory obstruction. This is crucial in cases of peritonsillar abscess to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the primary concern of preventing respiratory obstruction in this context.
Question 7 of 9
What is the primary purpose of using measurable client outcomes during the nursing process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using measurable client outcomes during the nursing process is to evaluate the effectiveness of nursing interventions. This is crucial in determining whether the care provided has led to the desired outcomes for the client's health. By measuring outcomes, nurses can assess if the interventions are successful, make any necessary adjustments to the care plan, and ensure optimal patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because diagnosing client conditions accurately is not the primary purpose of using measurable client outcomes; it is more related to the initial assessment phase. Choice C is incorrect because prioritizing nursing diagnoses effectively is an important aspect of the nursing process, but it is not the primary purpose of using measurable client outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because while documentation in the client's health record is important, it is not the primary purpose of using measurable client outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient’s ear is draining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.
Question 9 of 9
A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed loratadine (Claritin). On a follow-up visit, the client tells the nurse, “I take one 10-mg of Claritin with a glass of water two times daily”. The nurse concludes that the client requires additional teaching about this medication because:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.