ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient, such as their feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective as it is based on their personal experience. The other options (A, B, D) are objective data as they can be measured or observed directly without interpretation. The patient's temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. Therefore, only choice C fits the definition of subjective data in a nursing assessment.
Question 3 of 9
A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a client with a fractured rib?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Apply immobilization device after examination by physician Rationale: 1. Immobilization helps reduce pain and prevent further injury. 2. Physician examination ensures proper diagnosis and treatment plan. 3. Immobilization device may include chest binders or splints for support. 4. It is crucial to follow medical advice to prevent complications. Summary: B: Discouraging deep breaths can lead to respiratory complications. C: Advising against analgesics can increase pain and hinder recovery. D: Increased fluid intake is important but not directly related to rib fracture care.
Question 5 of 9
A 40 year old woman with aplastic anemia is prescribed estrogen with progesterone. The nurse can expect that these medications are given for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.
Question 6 of 9
A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Epididymitis is characterized by inflammation of the epididymis, causing symptoms such as severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Choice A is incorrect as burning and pain on urination are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling, is not commonly associated with epididymitis. Choice D, foul-smelling urine and pain on urination, may indicate a urinary tract infection but are not specific to epididymitis.
Question 7 of 9
The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is a type of immunotherapy used to treat bladder cancer by stimulating the immune system to attack cancer cells. One common side effect of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This occurs because BCG irritates the bladder lining, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware and can report any excessive bleeding to their healthcare provider promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not known to cause renal calculi. B: Delayed ejaculation - BCG therapy is not associated with delayed ejaculation. D: Impotence - BCG therapy is not linked to impotence.
Question 8 of 9
What common problem is related to outcome identification and planning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Failing to involve the client in the planning process. This is because involving the client in the planning process is crucial for promoting client-centered care and ensuring that the outcomes are realistic and aligned with the client's goals. By engaging the client, the nurse can better understand their preferences and values, leading to more effective planning and goal setting. Choice B is incorrect as collecting data to establish a database is related to assessment, not outcome identification and planning. Choice C is incorrect as stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses is actually a key component of effective outcome identification and planning. Choice D is incorrect as writing clear nursing orders, although important, is more related to implementation rather than outcome identification and planning.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse approaches a hospitalized poststroke patient from the patient’s left side to do an assessment. The patient is staring straight ahead, and does not respond to the nurse’s presence or voice. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.