ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client metastatic ovarian cancer is prescribed cisplatin (Platinol). Before administering the first dose, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history for drugs that may interact with cisplatin. Which drug may cause significant interactions when given concomitantly with cisplatin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The waiting area with the television turned off. This setting provides a quiet environment, minimizing distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. It allows the nurse to communicate effectively by speaking clearly and facing the patient directly. Option A is incorrect because a closed door may not be enough to reduce background noise. Option C is incorrect as pain medication may affect the patient's ability to concentrate. Option D is incorrect because the occupational therapist working on leg exercises may create additional noise and distractions.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. nursing diagnoses is the focus of care for a patient with hypertension?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deficient knowledge. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because educating the patient about hypertension, its management, lifestyle modifications, and medication adherence is crucial in improving outcomes. Activity intolerance (A) and impaired physical mobility (B) are not typically primary focuses for hypertension but may be secondary concerns. Ineffective airway clearance (C) is unrelated to hypertension. Therefore, D is the most relevant option for addressing the patient's needs.
Question 4 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pain related to sickle cell crisis. In a sickle cell crisis, the client experiences severe pain due to the sickling of red blood cells, which causes blockages in blood vessels. This pain is the hallmark symptom of sickle cell crisis and is a priority nursing diagnosis. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary issue of sickle cell crisis. Imbalanced nutrition is not typically a priority during a crisis, disturbed sleep pattern is not a common symptom, and impaired skin integrity is not a prominent concern in sickle cell crisis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: tachycardia, increased thirst, headache, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. The nurse analyzes the data. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume. The patient's symptoms indicate dehydration, as evidenced by tachycardia, increased thirst, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. This points to a lack of fluid in the body. Option A, adult failure to thrive, does not address the immediate issue of fluid volume. Option B, hypothermia, is incorrect as the patient has an increased body temperature. Option D, nausea, is not a primary issue compared to the symptoms indicating dehydration. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yearly after age 40. This recommendation aligns with the American Cancer Society guidelines that suggest women should start getting annual mammograms at age 40. This age is important as it is when the risk of breast cancer increases. Yearly screenings help in early detection and better treatment outcomes. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they do not follow the ACS guidelines. Option B is incorrect as it does not specify an age for starting mammograms. Option C is incorrect as it suggests starting after the first menstrual period, which might be too early. Option D is incorrect as it recommends screenings every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, which is not in line with the ACS recommendation for yearly screenings after age 40.
Question 7 of 9
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: providing for frequent rest periods. This intervention is essential for a client with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia to prevent further platelet depletion and reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Rest periods help conserve energy and minimize physical exertion, which can trigger bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Rationale: 1. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in thrombocytopenia as it can further decrease platelet count and increase the risk of bleeding. 2. Inspecting the skin for petechiae (choice B) is important but not as crucial as providing rest periods in managing thrombocytopenia. 3. Placing the client in strict isolation (choice D) is not necessary for radiation-induced thrombocytopenia unless there are other specific infectious concerns. In summary, providing frequent rest periods is the most appropriate intervention to manage radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, promoting patient
Question 8 of 9
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.
Question 9 of 9
Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.