ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client metastatic ovarian cancer is prescribed cisplatin (Platinol). Before administering the first dose, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history for drugs that may interact with cisplatin. Which drug may cause significant interactions when given concomitantly with cisplatin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with
Question 2 of 9
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.
Question 3 of 9
A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. In the late stage of AIDS, the client is at risk for neurological complications, including AIDS-related dementia due to decreased blood flow to the brain. This nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority as it directly addresses the client's impaired brain perfusion, which can lead to serious cognitive and functional deficits. Prioritizing this diagnosis ensures timely interventions to optimize cerebral blood flow and prevent further deterioration. Summary: A: Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene - important but not the highest priority compared to addressing neurological complications. B: Dysfunctional grieving - while emotional support is essential, it is not the priority when dealing with a life-threatening physiological issue. D: Risk for injury - while important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of the dementia in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
When assessing the external ear, the nurse palpates a small protrusion of the helix called a Darwin tubercle. The nurse would document this finding as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A normal finding. The Darwin tubercle is a small, painless, bony nodule at the helix of the ear and is considered a normal anatomical variation. It is present in a significant portion of the population, regardless of age. It does not indicate any pathology or abnormality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of a Darwin tubercle is not indicative of any abnormality, and it is not limited to older adults.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is documenting the progress of a client who has been recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in the evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it directly reflects the client's progress in physical activity, a key indicator of recovery post-myocardial infarction. Walking 500 meters without chest pain shows improved cardiovascular function and exercise tolerance. Vital signs and lab results from admission (A) are important for initial assessment but not for ongoing evaluation. Physician notes (C) may provide insights but do not directly measure the client's progress. Medications prescribed (D) are important but do not reflect the client's specific improvement in physical activity.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yearly after age 40. This recommendation aligns with the American Cancer Society guidelines that suggest women should start getting annual mammograms at age 40. This age is important as it is when the risk of breast cancer increases. Yearly screenings help in early detection and better treatment outcomes. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they do not follow the ACS guidelines. Option B is incorrect as it does not specify an age for starting mammograms. Option C is incorrect as it suggests starting after the first menstrual period, which might be too early. Option D is incorrect as it recommends screenings every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, which is not in line with the ACS recommendation for yearly screenings after age 40.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff points should a nurse include in the teaching plan for clients who have potential for hypovolemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid alcohol and caffeine. Alcohol and caffeine are diuretics that can increase urine output, leading to fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. This step is crucial in preventing further dehydration. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Increasing milk and dairy products can contribute to fluid intake but does not address the prevention of hypovolemia. C: While dried peas and beans can provide nutrients, they do not specifically address fluid intake or prevention of hypovolemia. D: Avoiding table salt or sodium-containing foods may help in reducing fluid retention but does not directly address fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia.
Question 9 of 9
Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.