ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is vomiting, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority when caring for a client who is vomiting to reduce the risk of pneumonia or other respiratory complications. Aspiration can occur when vomitus enters the airway, leading to respiratory distress. Ensuring the airway is protected during vomiting episodes is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) can be considered after addressing the immediate risk of aspiration. Notifying housekeeping (Choice B) and providing an emesis basin (Choice D) are important but are secondary to preventing aspiration, which is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps reduce friction and the risk of skin breakdown, aiding in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees can help with respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. Applying cornstarch may lead to further skin irritation. Massaging over bony prominences can increase the risk of skin damage rather than maintaining skin integrity.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional in a clinic sees a client who has an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol via jet nebulizer is the correct choice in this scenario as it is a short-acting bronchodilator that quickly relieves bronchospasm during an asthma exacerbation. Cromolyn (Choice A) is a mast cell stabilizer used for prevention, not quick relief. Budesonide (Choice B) is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control, not for acute symptom relief. Montelukast (Choice C) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for maintenance therapy, not for immediate symptom relief during an exacerbation.