A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?

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Question 1 of 9

A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.

Question 2 of 9

Marichu is admitted to the hospital because of hepatic failure and was prescribed with lactulose (Duphalac). The primary action of this drug is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: decrease resident intestinal flora. Lactulose is a synthetic sugar that is not absorbed in the intestine and is used to decrease ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy by promoting the growth of beneficial gut bacteria that help metabolize ammonia. This action helps reduce the toxic effects of ammonia on the brain. A: prevent constipation - Lactulose may help with constipation, but its primary action in this scenario is to decrease resident intestinal flora. C: increase intestinal peristalsis - Lactulose does not directly increase peristalsis. D: prevent portal hypertension - Lactulose does not have a direct effect on preventing portal hypertension.

Question 3 of 9

When taking the blood pressure of a client who has AIDS the nurse must;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use barrier techniques. When taking the blood pressure of a client with AIDS, using barrier techniques such as gloves and disposable equipment is crucial to prevent the transmission of the virus through blood or bodily fluids. Wearing a mask and gown (choice A) may not be necessary unless there is a risk of splashes or sprays. Washing hands thoroughly (choice C) is important, but alone may not provide sufficient protection. Choice D is incomplete.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the ff nursing interventions is required when caring for a client after cardiac surgery who is at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Position lower extremities below level of heart. This intervention helps improve blood flow and perfusion to the lower extremities by utilizing gravity to assist in venous return. This is crucial for clients at risk for ineffective tissue perfusion post-cardiac surgery. A: Restricting fluid intake may lead to dehydration, which can worsen tissue perfusion. B: Ensuring the client avoids prolonged sitting is important for preventing blood clots, but it does not directly address tissue perfusion. D: Instructing the client to avoid leg exercises may hinder circulation and exacerbate issues related to tissue perfusion.

Question 5 of 9

The following are warning signs of cancer. Which one is not?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, weight gain, as it is not typically considered a warning sign of cancer. Changes in bladder and bowel habits (A), indigestion or difficulty in swallowing (C), and a nagging cough or hoarseness (D) are commonly associated with various types of cancer. Weight gain is more commonly linked to factors such as diet, exercise, and hormonal imbalances rather than cancer. It is important to be vigilant about the other warning signs and seek medical attention if any of those symptoms persist.

Question 6 of 9

After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Asking the NAP to record the patient's vital signs before administering medications is the correct clinical decision. Vital signs are crucial indicators of a patient's health status and should be documented before any interventions. By having the NAP record the vital signs, the nurse ensures that the patient's condition is properly assessed and monitored. This action aligns with the standard of care and promotes patient safety. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs could be dangerous, especially if there are abnormalities that need attention. B: Reviewing vital signs upon return delays necessary assessment and intervention, potentially compromising patient safety. D: Omitting vital signs without assessment puts the patient at risk, as changes in vital signs can indicate underlying issues that need immediate attention.

Question 7 of 9

Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.

Question 8 of 9

The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication following hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland). This procedure can disrupt the regulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urination. Choice A is incorrect as decreased stress would not cause polyuria. Choice B is unlikely as the onset of diabetes mellitus is not a typical immediate postoperative complication. Choice C is incorrect as removal of the pituitary gland would disrupt hormone regulation, possibly leading to polyuria, rather than being an expected result.

Question 9 of 9

A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. This is because soap can irritate the skin, leading to skin breakdown in a client at risk for impaired skin integrity due to radiation therapy. Avoiding soap helps to prevent further damage to the skin. Choice B is incorrect as talcum powder can further irritate the skin and should be avoided. Choice C is not relevant to preventing skin integrity issues. Choice D is incorrect because thoracic skin markings should not be removed as they are essential for accurate radiation delivery.

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