ATI RN
Pediatric HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected thyroid cancer. What is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papillary carcinoma is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for approximately 80% of all thyroid cancers. It typically affects individuals in their 30s and 40s and has an excellent prognosis with high survival rates, especially when detected early. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland and is known for its characteristic papillary growth pattern. It often presents as a painless thyroid nodule and may be associated with a history of radiation exposure. Treatment usually involves surgery to remove the thyroid gland (thyroidectomy) followed by radioactive iodine therapy and thyroid hormone replacement.
Question 2 of 5
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove benign or malignant tumors located in the pituitary gland. Pituitary carcinoma refers to a type of cancer that originates in the pituitary gland. Therefore, this surgery is indicated for treating pituitary carcinoma by removing the tumor from the pituitary gland. After the surgery, hormone replacement therapy may be necessary to replace the hormones that were previously produced by the removed adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary gland).
Question 3 of 5
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The drug should be resumed when the WBC (white blood cell) count falls to 5,000/mm3. This is the appropriate indicator to monitor as a low WBC count may indicate the need for the medication to be restarted to support the immune system. It is important to closely monitor the WBC count as it is a crucial factor in gauging the body's ability to fight infections effectively. Resuming treatment at this point helps ensure that the client's immune system remains stable and can continue to function properly.
Question 4 of 5
When the patient's signature is witnessed by the nurse on the surgical consent, which of the following does the nurse's signature indicate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's signature on the surgical consent form indicates that the nurse has verified and confirmed that the patient has signed the consent form. This step is crucial to ensure that the patient has voluntarily given their consent for the surgical procedure. It does not mean that the nurse obtained or provided informed consent, answered all surgical procedure questions, or made decisions on behalf of the patient. The nurse's role is to act as a witness to the patient's signature on the consent form to acknowledge that the patient has agreed to the procedure and signed the document.
Question 5 of 5
The multilumen pulmonary artery catheter allows the nurse to measure hemodynamic pressures at different points in the heart. When the tip enters the small branches of the pulmonary artery, the nurse can assess all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The multilumen pulmonary artery catheter, when positioned in the small branches of the pulmonary artery, allows the nurse to measure various hemodynamic pressures. Central venous pressure (CVP), Pulmonary artery capillary pressure (PACP), and Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) can be measured accurately at this point. However, "Pulmonary artery obstructive pressure" is not a valid or recognized hemodynamic pressure parameter. Instead, the correct term for this measurement that can be assessed using the catheter is the Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) or Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP), which reflects the left atrial pressure.