ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous changes. This condition increases the risk of testicular cancer even if the testicle is surgically corrected later in life. Other choices like A (Testosterone therapy during childhood) and B (Sexually transmitted disease) are not linked to testicular cancer. Choice C (Early onset of puberty) is not a direct risk factor for testicular cancer.
Question 2 of 9
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with metal implants in their body. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields, which can interact with metal implants, causing movement or heating of the metal and potential harm to the client. This could lead to serious injuries or complications during the scan. Overweight clients (choice A), clients over the age of 60 (choice C), and clients with brain tumors (choice D) do not have contraindications for an MRI scan.
Question 3 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it is essential to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate precautions and interventions. By asking the patient to describe the type of reaction, the nurse can gather crucial information to ensure patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview prematurely is not appropriate without gathering important information about the allergy. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the allergy is important, but assessing the type of reaction should be the initial priority.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following terms would indicate to the nurse that a substance is toxic to the ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ototoxic. Ototoxic refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, potentially causing hearing loss or damage. The prefix "oto-" specifically relates to the ear. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to reshape the ear, not related to toxicity. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not toxicity. Tinnitus (D) is a symptom of ringing in the ears, not directly related to toxicity. Therefore, the term "ototoxic" is the best indicator of a substance being toxic to the ear due to its specific reference to ear toxicity.
Question 5 of 9
A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my life.” This statement is correct because pernicious anemia is a lifelong condition requiring ongoing vitamin B12 supplementation. Patients with pernicious anemia lack intrinsic factor, which is needed to absorb vitamin B12 from food. Therefore, they need lifelong B12 therapy to prevent complications such as anemia and neurological damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest a limited duration of therapy. Pernicious anemia is a chronic condition that necessitates continuous treatment. Choice A implies therapy until signs and symptoms disappear, which may not address the underlying cause of the deficiency. Choice B mentions therapy until vitamin B12 levels normalize, which may not prevent recurrence. Choice C suggests monthly therapy for a fixed period, which may not be sufficient for lifelong management.
Question 6 of 9
During the evaluation phase, what key action does the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the evaluation phase, the nurse performs the key action of determining the effectiveness of the care plan. This involves assessing whether the client's goals are being met, if interventions are achieving the desired outcomes, and if any modifications are necessary. This step is crucial to ensure the care plan is successful and the client's needs are being addressed appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because diagnosing the client's condition is typically done in the assessment phase, not during evaluation. Choice B is incorrect as identifying nursing interventions is part of the planning phase. Choice D is incorrect as developing goals and outcomes is part of the planning phase as well. Overall, the evaluation phase focuses on assessing the effectiveness of the care plan rather than diagnosing, identifying interventions, or developing goals.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial conjunctivitis. In providing patient teaching the nurse would tell the patient that this condition is more commonly known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pinkeye. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis is commonly referred to as "pinkeye" due to the characteristic pink or red appearance of the eye. This condition is caused by a bacterial infection of the conjunctiva, the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and inner eyelids. The term "glaucoma" (A) refers to a different eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, while "color blindness" (B) is a genetic condition affecting color vision. "Astigmatism" (C) is a refractive error related to the shape of the cornea or lens, not an infection of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it accurately identifies the common name for acute bacterial conjunctivitis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 9 of 9
On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer is major surgery (Choice C). This is because at this advanced stage, surgery is typically performed to debulk the tumor and remove as much cancerous tissue as possible, followed by chemotherapy to target any remaining cancer cells. Radiation therapy (Choice A) is not typically the initial treatment for ovarian cancer. Chemotherapy (Choice B) is often used in combination with surgery, but surgery is usually the first line of treatment for stage IV disease. Choosing no treatment (Choice D) would be detrimental as the cancer is advanced and requires immediate intervention.