A client is to receive Pergonal (menotropins) injections for infertility prior to in vitro fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Stimulation of ovulation. Pergonal (menotropins) is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women who are experiencing infertility. Menotropins contain follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which help stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs. This is crucial in the process of in vitro fertilization (IVF) as it increases the chances of successful fertilization. Option A) Prolongation of the luteal phase is incorrect as Pergonal does not affect the luteal phase but rather focuses on stimulating ovulation. Option C) Suppression of menstruation is incorrect as Pergonal does not suppress menstruation but rather helps in the development and release of eggs. Option D) Promotion of cervical mucus production is incorrect as the primary action of Pergonal is to stimulate ovulation, not affect cervical mucus production. In an educational context, understanding the expected actions of medications used in infertility treatments is essential for healthcare providers working with clients undergoing fertility interventions. Proper knowledge ensures safe and effective administration of these medications to optimize the chances of successful conception for individuals experiencing infertility.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In interpreting a basal body temperature (BBT) chart, it is essential to understand the hormonal changes that occur during the menstrual cycle. The correct answer, D, states that it is likely that the client's progesterone levels rose on day 15. This is because after ovulation, progesterone levels increase, leading to a rise in BBT. This can be seen in the chart where there is a noticeable temperature shift around day 15, indicating ovulation. Option A, stating that the client has not ovulated, is incorrect because the chart clearly shows a temperature shift, which is indicative of ovulation. Option B, suggesting the fertile period is between 12 and 18 days, is incorrect as the fertile window typically occurs before ovulation, not after. Option C, claiming the client's period is abnormally long, is also incorrect as BBT charts do not provide information about the length of the menstrual cycle. Educationally, understanding how to interpret BBT charts is crucial for individuals trying to conceive or understand their menstrual cycle. It helps in identifying ovulation, determining the fertile window, and assessing hormonal balance. By recognizing the patterns in BBT charts, individuals can better understand their reproductive health and make informed decisions regarding family planning.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a client for a hysterosalpingogram (HSG), providing accurate information is crucial for their understanding and cooperation. Option C, "An antibiotic fluid will be instilled through a tube in your cervix," is the correct answer. This is essential information because during an HSG, a contrast dye, not an antibiotic fluid, is inserted through the cervix to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes on X-ray. This helps assess for any blockages or abnormalities that may be causing infertility. Option A is incorrect because an HSG is not performed through an incision next to the belly button; it is a minimally invasive radiologic procedure done through the cervix. Option B is incorrect as most individuals can resume normal activities after the procedure with no need for extended bed rest. Option D is also incorrect as the client is typically asked to hold still during the X-ray rather than move around to obtain clear images. Educationally, understanding the specifics of procedures like HSGs is vital for nurses to accurately inform and prepare clients. Providing correct information enhances patient trust, cooperation, and overall experience, leading to better outcomes and compliance with healthcare recommendations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) 0% probability. Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Since the woman is a carrier (XHXh) and her husband has a normal genotype (XY), the daughter will inherit one X chromosome from each parent. The daughter will receive the X chromosome with the normal allele from her father and the X chromosome with the normal allele or the X chromosome with the hemophilia A allele from her mother. Since the mother is a carrier, she can only pass on either the normal X allele (XH) or the carrier X allele (Xh) to her daughter, resulting in the daughter being either a carrier like her mother or having a normal genotype. As a carrier, the daughter will not have the disease. Therefore, the probability of their daughter having hemophilia A is 0%. The other options can be explained as follows: - B) 25% probability: This is incorrect because the daughter will not inherit the X chromosome with the hemophilia A allele from her mother. - C) 50% probability: This is incorrect as it does not consider the fact that the mother is a carrier and can only pass on the normal or carrier X allele to her daughter. - D) 75% probability: This is incorrect as it overestimates the likelihood of the daughter having hemophilia A based on the parents' genotypes. Understanding the principles of X-linked inheritance is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning to provide accurate information and support to individuals and couples dealing with genetic conditions like hemophilia A.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) She has trisomy 21. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21, as depicted in the karyotype. This condition leads to distinct physical features and developmental delays. Option A) She has a genetically normal karyotype is incorrect because the karyotype clearly shows an extra chromosome 21, indicating an abnormality. Option C) She has fragile X syndrome is incorrect as fragile X syndrome is associated with a mutation in the FMR1 gene, not an extra chromosome 21. Option D) She has an autosomal monosomy is incorrect because monosomy refers to the presence of only one chromosome instead of the usual pair. From an educational perspective, understanding karyotypes is crucial in diagnosing genetic conditions. By analyzing chromosomal abnormalities like trisomy 21, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to individuals with genetic disorders. This knowledge is vital in the field of infertility as certain genetic conditions can impact fertility and reproductive outcomes.