ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2016 Practice Exam A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Fever. When a client is starting therapy with rituximab, it is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs of fever promptly. Rituximab is a medication that can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Fever can be an early sign of infection, which can be severe due to the immunosuppressive effects of rituximab. Option A) Dizziness is not typically associated with rituximab therapy and may be a common side effect of other medications or unrelated issues. Option C) Urinary frequency is also not a common finding associated with rituximab therapy. Option D) Dry mouth is a less concerning side effect compared to fever in this context. Educationally, understanding the side effects and potential complications of rituximab therapy is essential for nurses to ensure the safety and well-being of their clients. Prompt reporting of fever can lead to early intervention and prevention of serious infections in clients undergoing rituximab treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the professional instruct the client to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sore throat.' Clients starting therapy with topotecan should be instructed to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of the medication. Infections can be serious in clients undergoing chemotherapy, so early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors, so consuming high amounts of vitamin K-rich foods can counteract the effects of Warfarin and increase the risk of clot formation. Option A) Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables is incorrect because leafy greens are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the action of Warfarin. Option C) Increase your intake of dairy products is incorrect as dairy products do not have a significant impact on Warfarin therapy. It is the vitamin K content in foods that is relevant to Warfarin use. Option D) Avoid foods high in iron is also incorrect as iron content in foods does not directly interact with Warfarin therapy. Educationally, understanding the impact of diet on drug therapy is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to their patients. By knowing which foods to avoid or limit when taking specific medications like Warfarin, nurses can help prevent adverse effects and ensure the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. This knowledge also underscores the importance of individualized patient education to promote medication adherence and optimal treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Hyponatremia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium and water reabsorption in the nephron. This leads to increased excretion of sodium and water, resulting in diuresis. As a result, the client is at risk for developing hyponatremia, a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive loss through urine. Option A) Hyperkalemia is incorrect because Furosemide actually increases the excretion of potassium, leading to the risk of hypokalemia instead. Option C) Hypernatremia is incorrect as Furosemide causes sodium excretion, which would not result in elevated sodium levels. Option D) Hypercalcemia is unrelated to Furosemide use and is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Educationally, it is vital for nurses to understand the pharmacological effects of medications to anticipate and monitor for potential adverse reactions. By knowing the mechanism of action of Furosemide, nurses can provide safe and effective care by recognizing and managing potential complications like hyponatremia. This knowledge ensures patient safety and promotes optimal outcomes in medication management.