Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal (sub-arachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client according to the anesthesiologist’s instructions. Why does the client require special positioning for this type of anesthesia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache. Incorrect choices: A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure. C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks. D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.

Question 2 of 5

What is the nurse’s firstaction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. First, reviewing lab results for potassium level is important in assessing potential electrolyte imbalances that may contribute to the patient's symptoms. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition. Assessing the patient for other symptoms or problems is crucial to gather additional information. Finally, notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely communication and collaboration for appropriate care. Choice A is incorrect as following a clinical protocol for a stroke is premature without a comprehensive assessment. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication without a thorough assessment and provider notification can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the healthcare provider should precede administering any medication.

Question 3 of 5

Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

Question 4 of 5

The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is commonly used in the treatment of bladder cancer. It works by stimulating the immune system to attack and destroy cancer cells in the bladder. One of the common side effects of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This can occur due to irritation of the bladder lining by the BCG solution, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware of what to expect during treatment. A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not commonly associated with the formation of renal calculi. C: Delayed ejaculation - Delayed ejaculation is not a common side effect of BCG therapy. D: Impotence - Impotence is not a common side effect of BCG therapy.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting the assessment by examining a specific aspect (surgical dressing with drainage) and will likely proceed to gather more detailed information based on the initial findings. This approach involves moving from a broad overview to specific details, which is essential in assessing postoperative patients for complications. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive assessment framework that covers various aspects of an individual's health, not specifically focusing on the progression from general to specific assessments in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity levels and exercise routines, which is not the primary focus of the scenario described. D: Problem-oriented assessment is a method that involves identifying and addressing specific health issues or concerns, which is not the primary aim of the assessment approach used by the nurse in this scenario.

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